I assume there was a point in time at which these signs were not "needed" as people of color already KNEW they were considered second class and didnt need to be told they wernt going to be served at a restaurant. Was there any particular catalyst for the appearance of these signs?

Bonus question: Which laws supported their legality?

I have read that the move from a hunter-gatherer and/or nomadic society to a agricultural based society led to a greater technological development, and in the end led to the establishment of what we call a "civilization". By this logic a agricultural society should be technologically advanced compared to a nomadic society. However the Mongols and Turks did invade and conquer Europe and/or the Middle East with ease. Sure the use of horse archers played a large part, but the Mongols and Turks would have needed steel, armor, swords, bows and other things of a sufficient technology level, or else they would have lost the war.

So my question is: How did nomadic societies like the Mongols and Turks reach a technological level sufficient to conquer agricultural societies?

I read about Adolf Frederick and his unusual death. When I read that the meal that took his life included lobster I became curious. As this was the mid 1700's I was under the impression that during that time lobster was still considered one of the lowest and least desired form of food. When did that change? Did the change vary by region or did it occur rather quickly?

I know that the USSR's constant highlighting of American institutional racism towards the Third World played a big role in the change of federal policy towards white subjugation of blacks in the South, but what was the popular conception of the United States like in relation to its racial climate in nations like Canada, Britain, France, etc., from post-Reconstruction to around 1968?

This is really broad, I know, but I wonder to what degree America was judged and viewed as horrifically backwards by the rest of the world in this time period. Was it anywhere near as bad as South Africa was viewed internationally until the 1990s?

I'm really interested in how he managed to convince an entire country that Jews, and other targeted demographics of the holocaust, were a great enough threat to warrant a holocaust. It's my understanding that the majority of German people loved Hitler when he was in power and he had enough support from his country to have an army that fought for him. Did he use propaganda? patriotism? Outright lies? How did he do it???

She keeps a jar of sourdough starter in her refrigerator that she says is descendent from our relatives who lived in the colonies.

She'll bake something with this sourdough starter, then return a little bit of it to the jar, as she says her mother, grandmothers and aunts did before her, all the way back to the 1600's.

Thus, she concludes, her sourdough starter is essentially (and I guess, elementally?) the SAME LIVING STUFF that has been in our family since the boat.

Question: she's a sweet lady, but prone to exaggeration for a good story's sake...so is she B.S.'ing us?

Looking for a couple and can't find any. Figured i'd ask if anyone here knows of any.

I have read that the word 'kakos' means 'evil' in Ancient Greek (correct me is I'm wrong), but how would that have been written in Ancient Greek characters?

EDIT: added comma

How did the state keep track of who was a roman citizen and who was not? Was there a central citizenship registry? And if you were not a roman citizen, but just living in the republics territory, were you still tracked in some kind of public registry?

Thanks for answers in advance.

I was thinking about the swap of territory between France and Italy in Savoy, and how the borders in much of Africa and the Middle East are arbitrary, have countries ever tried to peacefully swap land in order to improve both nations?

Was there pubs, or an equivalent, in Ancient Rome?