I am writing a story, and I want to make a believable series of events. It takes place in a remote archeological excavation site in Mexico in the 1920s. If people got injured on these types of excavations, would there typically be full medical staff on site to treat them, or would they have to be sent to a hospital in a nearby city that could be days away? The types of injuries I am talking about are like amputations or broken ribs

I heard someone talking about it and making fun of it as english came and just slaughtered them and they didn't try to be nice to english and give them food? I've tried googling this but they still show all the "yeah they gave them food".

I should trust that over those people maybe, but idk google can be finicky anyway.

I was looking at David O Stewart and a few others.

I vaguely remember reading something similar once about an indigenous people in Brazil, the Tupis I think. It may have been in Jared Diamond's infamous book, but I'm not sure. I'm not sure how complex the book said their societies were either, but I think it was mentioned that they retained the use of royal titles and lineages from that earlier period.

Would this question fit in r/AskAnthropology better?
Edit: I accidentally sent this post three times, but I deleted the other two now.

Done tons of research but can't square some conflicting evidence on the past (480 bc) vs current area of Thermopylae. I believe it's common knowledge that alluvial fans/deposition has resulted approximately 20 meters of sediment deposited over the battlefield (specific to 480 bc). I also believe it's commonly accepted that the pass was roughly 15-30 meters wide with shear cliffs on the southern side and a drop (height unknown, but not substantial) to the sea below on the north side. Additionally, the Phocian Wall, of which the remains are still visible, was thought to be approximately 3-4 meters tall.

My questions are:

1. If there is anywhere near 20 meters (~66 feet) of deposition covering the battlefield, how can a 4 meter (12 foot) wall still be visible? Even with a margin of error on both sides, these two statements can't both be true at the same location. Additionally, archeologist state only the base of the Phocian wall remains, which means it certainly can't be buried under 60 feet of sediment and at the same level it was when built pre-480 bc.
2. Along these same lines, the wall is roughly 150 meters (500 feet) long. According to most geologist (plenty of solid university data on the web), although the sediment deposited has resulted in a large plain now, 2,500 years ago the pass was likely no more than 100 feet wide (that's the upper limit) - most think less than 40 feet). If what is believed to be the Phocian wall is in fact that wall, it wouldn't extend roughly 500 feet (even diagonally) at the same elevation, which it does. Again, even with some significant margins on both sides here, there isn't room for a 500 foot wall on a 50+ foot width.

Between the length of the accepted wall vs the width of the pass at the time, and the known deposition of 60+ feet of sediment vs a visible wall at the surface, I don't see how this can be the actual wall spoken of during the battle. Can't seem to find anyone else asking these questions, so posting here. Thanks all.

With cases like the rape of Nanking and unit 731. Did any soldiers/ scientists suffer from similar psychological effects to that of German soldiers had after committing mass shootings before the start of the Holocaust. Were there high rates of alcohol abuse, suicides, depression, etc afterwards?

It's easy to see how Italy and Germany became militaristic by seeing how their respective fascist parties gradually rose to power between the two world wars, but it seems like Japan never had such a well-defined development. There have been some who said this was the inevitable evolution of the samurai mindset or whatever, but I'm skeptical.

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Thanks!

As far as I know slavic people are just as white as Germans

The Fall of Constantinople is an incredibly important event due to it leading to the rise of the Ottoman Empire and the final end of the Romans (Byzantium/Eastern Roman Empire) so what did the fall mean to countries such as the Holy Roman Empire, Spain, the Papal States and Muscovy?

We know how European Explorers went to America and brought with them diseases from the old world like smallpox. Since Natives had no immunity to the European diseases they were wiped out.

Did the inverse happen? Did Native Americans carry any diseases that European explorers had no immunity to?

I heard somewhere that they also have other names, but why are they called like this? This is about prehistoric Egypt

How did England go from 4 kingdoms and 4 kings to 1 to bring us to the current Queen of England? I can't seem to get a direct satisfying answer on Google. Cause usually it would be sons as the heir to the thrones.

I asked this a few times on the Thursday Reading Recommendations threads and it didn't get much attention. I'd really like a recommendation from this sub because of the high standard of accuracy that is upheld here.

I know there are quite a lot of works that focus on how it led to Nazi Germany, but I'd like a book that focuses more on the period itself; I'd especially like to know more about the earlier parts of it: from the 1918 revolution through the "Golden Twenties".

Thanks a lot!

She is supposed to have offed herself with an Asp. A story which has many problems, it wouldn't be easy getting a Snake past the guards and a snake may not necessarily be provoked to bit on command and might not deliver enough venom for a fatal dose anyway. Especially for 3 women.
Several ancient writers claim in the alternate that she used a poisoned hairpin. Which of course adds to the issue of whether the guards knew their jobs at all, surely a pin would have been discovered?

I could almost believe Octavian was behind it, whether directly or by allowing it to happen and the later would explain the otherwise incomprehensible incompetence of Cleopatras gaolers, who as far as I know, escape unpunished. But, Octavian had earlier taken great care to try and ensure Cleopatra remained alive, including essentially blackmailing her to eat by threatening to kill her children. He wanted her to be paraded in his Triumph*.

I know a former FBI profiler wrote a book claiming she was murdered, I don’t know how well regarded that book is.

*Although I have read speculation that he wasn’t planning to do so, since the Roman populace was fickle and had on occasion shown symphaty for the paradees, as had happened earlier with Cleopatras sister Arsinoe.