Just wondering because in previous wars, it seems like the loser was given a pretty light punishment. For example, Kaiser Wilhelm II was just exiled after WWI and forgotten about.
When it became clear that Nazi Germany was losing the war, what did its top leaders believe was going to happen to them? Did they think the Allies were going to just exile them? Or did they understand that trial/execution was coming their way?
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I'm just after a rough estimate, if possible. Was it only something that pathological men would do making rare like 1% or was it much more common?
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Here's our announcement thread. We would love for the users of AskHistorians to come join us and ask questions to the staff.
The AMA will last about two hours. It will be actively moderated, so Holocaust deniers need not apply. Come join us!
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What do we know about the spread of Babism in Persia in its beginning ? What impact did this movement had over the society ?
Thank you.
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Training, deployment and the day to day life? Are there any accounts or interviews with particular vets? Its very unspoken of in my opinion and a subject I would like to see some light shed on. Thank you.
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Hallo all: I was looking at modern art inspired by the quilt code of the underground railroad, which led me to the wikipedia page on the underground railroad. Wikipedia claims that the so-called quilt code (slaves sending messages via quilt) is an urban legend. I'm interested to know the truth. Can anyone provide clarity on this matter?
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Bulgaria is a south slavic nation just like any other nation that was part of Yugoslavia. Why they didn't join Yugoslavia ?
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I can think of lots of examples like the Ute (yoot etc) and so on.
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I'm not a holocaust denier or anything, it just seems odd.
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It seems to be human nature for humans to expand their population until they have reached (or exceeded) the limit of natural resources to sustain them. However, when NA was first discovered it had abundant natural resources that were not yet being fully exploited by the indigenous population. Since this appears to be true when NA was first discovered, I don't think the introduction of new diseases accounts for a reduction of pressure on natural resources--that happened later.
Did the population simply not have the time to expand to meet the constraints of resources in the 10K years NA had been settled? Were they actually at sustainable levels due to the level of technology of resource gathering? Or is there some other explanation (population growth restricted through artificial/cultural mechanisms).
Thanks!
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I tried searching a few different keywords and did an askhistorians google search but came up with nothing.
Thanks for doing what you do!
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I've heard this bit of folklore(?) a few times, mostly in the supposed origins of the term "testicle" and its relation to the origins of the word "testify". A few websites insist the etymological relation is less direct and that the Romans never swore on their testes. So which is it?
Also, the footnote for 24:2-9 of Genesis in my NRSV copy of the bible (Abraham said to his servant, the oldest of his house, who had charge of all that he had, “Put your hand under my thigh and I will make you swear by the Lord the God of heaven and earth, that you will not get a wife for my son from the daughters of the Canaanites, among whom I live, [...] So the servant put his hand under the thigh of Abraham his master and swore to him concerning this matter.) states that the most likely meaning of the word translated as "thigh" refers actually to the genitals. A documentary I saw on the Ancient Eastern Mediterranean additionally claims that the Greeks sometimes held the (presumably castrated) testicles of a goat when swearing oaths and also mentioned the possibly folk etymology (although the documentary reversed the origin and claimed "testify" appeared after meaning of "testicle" instead of the reverse). Is there any evidence for either of these?
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