How come Germany in WW2 was so sure they could defeat Russia whilst already at war with everyone else?

How does one calculate profits and loss when it comes to going at war with another country?

A part of it is the technological advantage but how do you calculate odds for sheer manpower? Do add up your soldiers, tanks and ships and then say let's do this?

I am sure that there is no textbook formula and a lot comes down to wishful thinking. But if I'm the guy who has to look at the numbers - free from emotion / ideology - how do I draw conclusions to advise those in charge?

I read the other day that it's the most sparsely populated independent country in the world, and I'm just curious why that is.

Was it more a French demand than English?

Before WW2 the term "Jap" was simply used as a shortening of "Japanese". Then during the War it became a derogatory term for Japanese Americans, who suffered from internment and other forms of racism.

After the war, how was the use of the term attacked and removed from discourse? Was there a movement against it similar to removing the term "nigger"?

Hey there!

I was wondering if there are any history graduates here employed in the gaming industry. I am close to finishing my bachelors degree in history and was looking into possible master degrees. Because of my interest in games I was wondering how viable a job in the gaming industry is for a history graduate. And also, which master degree should I pursue in this case?

Thanks,

Impzor

Can anyone shine some light on it?

I tried looking through old responses first, but I couldn't find any questions directly related to the topic of the accuracy of the oppressive spanish mission.

It seems like these missions were only able to survive in a new environment by having soldiers. However, to survive, the missions had to have some sort of economy. They had to be able to buy the goods that they couldn't produce unless they lived of the land entirely, and it doesn't seem like they did. Did the missionaries entirely subsist off of the forced labor of the Native Americans? We're they self sufficient in this way or did they also sell the goods that the Native Americans produced? And why did the Native Americans enter the missions in the first place? I read that in California the lifespan of mission Indians were 6 years. Why did they not run away before they were forced to enter the missions if they knew that the Spanish were coming? I know it was very hard for the Native Americans to resist, but I just want to understand better how the Spanish took control.

My best friend is a very strange guy. He says that liberal arts are a waste of time but is an economics major with a history minor. He loves to read military history and has a hard time realizing that other types of history are legitimate, and are completely inferior to military history.

I need to get him a Christmas gift, I want to buy him a book on a topic that is the complete opposite of what he would like. Something like on like Feminist Avant-Garde Artists and World War II. The more suggestions the better!

Thanks!

By Israel here, I mean the modern state of Israel, not any incarnation of the people of Israel or other states/peoples in the area of the Levant earlier in history.

Obviously, there are subtleties missed by my generalized characterization of Israel's reputation, and I'm aware of them. But for purposes of the question, I think it works. Feel free to correct me if I'm wrong.

Was there hostility, or friendliness? Did they dispute land claims? How did they treat Polish civilians differently from eachother?

This is probably a really complicated matter, without any straight answers. I would like to see some arguments concerning the historicity of the Phaeaceans, as well as the location of the island Phaeacea.

How and why did Germany challenge Britan's naval supremacy?

By what means did the Normans manage to rule another country with different culture, language, and structure? Was it oppression, was it keen administration? How did they do it?