I understand the fascism in Spain during world war II, but either way, Spain did not fight in either war: just stopped Germany from occupying the peninsula Spain is on. So, why did Spain not fight in the war?

I am NOT trying to prove Christianity wrong. Just want to an answer to the question. Please don't get hostile.

And is this widespread throughout out the world?

Maybe I am overestimating the variance in mutual intelligibility for different dialects, but my understanding is that even within the same country, speakers of German, Italian, and Chinese (Mandarin vs. Cantonese of course) have trouble understanding each other.

Within the Arabic world and Spanish-speaking world I have heard of similar difficulties across countries, even if there is a "standardized" version that is taught with schools.

Sure there are differences in slangs and accents across the English-speaking world. But for the most part, a British, American, Australian etc. person has relatively little trouble understanding the others. Am I reading into this wrong, or is there some special reason why English didn't split off into separate "dialects".

It seems to me that the idea of time differences between England and Asia wouldn't be noticed when the fastest way to travel is via sailboat.

I can understand why the papacy fought against heresies that might undermine its position as the Holy See, but why was it so adamantly against 'academic' heresy? That is, issues regarding scholarly questions of theological metaphysics. I know of two cases when such questions caused fierce contention:

• Monotheletism, the doctrine that the Trinity has a single divine will, rather than three. The condemnation of monotheletism led to high tension between the pope and the emperor.

• Filoque, the doctrine that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son, rather than the Father alone. This ultimately led to the East–West Schism.

I may be being cynical, but I would have expected the papacy to have preferred to have maintained control by shrugging off such academic questions. Why did they risk fracturing the Church by fighting so adamantly against heresies that, as far as I can tell, do not seem to have posed a threat to the position of the papacy?

This question may have been asked before, and if so, I apologize.

Some more questions:

What would the dominant language be in this land of the dead? Would anybody have any hope of communication unless they were placed with people from their time and place?

What food would the most people be used to eating? (Rice or wheat, I'd guess?)

If a pan-afterlife fight broke out, what would be the most common form of attack and defense?

A friend of mine and I are having a discussion about the back story of one of my D&D characters. He was born of a Noblewoman's dalliance and being bastard-born has caused him to be a bit of an outsider. My friend is saying that since his mother was noble he wouldn't be considered a bastard an would have normal social status. I tried finding relevant info on the web but couldn't find anything indicating that the gender of the noble parent mattered. He is citing Crusader Kings as his source.

As opposed to the longer drawn-out process in USSR, German reunification was a rather sudden and unplanned move
As far as i know in DDR people did not hold individual property rights to industrial infrastructure,land or real estate
How was the transition handled, and how were the assets divided?
Suppose a regular german citizen living in a city flat, would he get ownership of that?
Or would somebody involved in agriculture be given some land rights?

This one is for you fans of the Khans. I remember reading somewhere about one of the Khans receiving a threat from a European leader. The threat read something like "If we come into your lands, we will destroy you etc..." The Khan's response was simply "If." I'm wondering what the exact quotes are, and what the story is behind this.

Thanks!

Okay, this is detailed, but being an extreme Roman buff, like I live to study Rome, I will provide details for the question.

Around 122 AD. During Rome's heyday, as Hadrian was starting his reign, one of the most prestigious legions in the Roman Empire, the 9th Hispana, dropped off the face of the Earth. Now, unlike previous times where Legions were gone, like Teutoburg Wald where the 17th, 18th, and 19th Legions were annihilated, there are no records, no writings, and no extreme archaeological evidence (that I know of) to support a decisive theory.

The two main theories are as follows.

1. Caledonian Tribes wiped them out in Scotland. This is a heavily supported theory, and also gives a very good reason as to why Hadrian decided to start building the famous Hadrian Wall around this time as well, however, if this theory is true, why is it that nobody recorded it? As Carrhae, and Teutoburg Wald proved, the Romans did record these massacres, so why not this one?

2. The Jewish Revolt. Many say that the Legion could have been wiped out by Jewish Rebels in the Second Jewish Revolt, but this is unsupported by time tables and location.

So yeah Historians, please help a Rome lover with this mystery, and if you happen to know about as much as I do, please share your theory as I would love to hear it!

We've got this particular question for an assignment. We're pretty set on our answer but was just wondering if anyone had any opinions on this? Obviously I'd never use anything you guys post yourselves (I'd get crucified if I had Reddit as a reference) but if you have any sources to use then those would be welcome.