Disclaimer, I am not arguing either for or against gun control in making this post. If I misrepresent anyone else’s views I apologize in advance.
Many people seem to describe the importance, or lack thereof, of the second amendment by saying what the founding fathers intended by it. On one hand, 2nd amendment supporters often claim one of several principles, from the right to self defense to the right to have a means of overthrowing an unrepresentative government. On the other, gun control advocates often point to the “well regulated militia clause” and come away with a completely different interpretation that makes the amendment seem quite outdated.
So my question is: was anyone at the time of the constitution’s drafting talking about this amendment and/or it’s implications? Can we actually say with any certainty what the framers intended when they put these words to paper, and if so, what is the general consensus?
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The panel called for us to turn against modern capitalism and reestablish the gift-giving ways of the indigenous people.
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I have a 9 month old and her ability to sleep through the night is probably the most important thing in my life right now. Sleep training is common practice now and widely accepted, but was that always the case?
I'm curious about Roman times. What were the expectations? Was it different for wealthy citizens vs commoners? Was it not a thing at all?
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So after years of ignoring all the Romance of Three Kingdoms media i recently purchased Total War: Three Kingdoms. And as with every other part of the franchise i decided to read about the topic first, so i would know what to expect. The result did horrify me. There is tons of books, movies, mangas and games about that period. They all are extremly popular and they all do one thing - make it appear as period of glory and romance. What they dont do, is recognizing that this period actually was probably one of darkest in history of China - constant warfare, none of the states being able to be stable and last and most importanly - reduction of the population to 1/10 or even less then it was before. It was total genocide, even horrors of world war 2 pale in comparision, especially considering that because of much lower total population back then this means that % of population that died back then, was just horrifying. So why does everybody forget about this part and think about that time period as one of more popular in chinese history, when it actually was probably the worst, even compared to earlier and later war(since death numbers were always way higher there then in europe).
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I’ve been wondering this recently because they have just come out of a seven year war and were a newly formed country, therefore I would expect them to need high taxes. If this did happen how did the public react, seeing as this was a large reason for the revolution.
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I feel like I can’t find a good answer to this anywhere that I look. It seems as though it basically just goes that through all of history mounted steppe warriors were decidedly superior to those of settled communities aside from a few rare occasions, and then all of the sudden mounted steppe warriors can’t do a thing against the communities around them around the 14th/15th centuries after battles like Kulikovo and the like.
What military or technological innovations occurred?
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I often see the claim spread online that a Quran was placed on the flat top upon graduation by scholars in Al-Andalus. However, I failed to find any sources for this. Is there any truth to that popular myth? If so, does the square cap predate this practice?
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I want to watch something that's:
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I have the impression there is some overhype about him despite he didn't really accomplish anything or had any impact in Japan history. The only informations we have about him are anecdotical. We only know :
. He was a "slave" of the Jesuits and visit Japan with them in 1579.
. For less than one year (1581-1582), he was under the service of Oda Nobunaga as a weapon bearer. There are no mention of him being a Samurai or fighting in armies. After Nobunaga death, he was captured and send back to the Jesuit, end of the story
I just see here a simple mention in a Japanese text book of an "exotic servant" who served Oda Nobunaga but that's all. The character seem to be only know because of his skin color.
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Did American companies such as IBM, I.G. Farben, J.D. Rockefeller’s Standard Oil Company, and the Union Banking Corporation of New York City help the Nazi war effort?
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Specifically, how could they determine whether the female or male in the couple is infertile? I tried to find answers online but I guess I didn't use the right search query. I am wondering that technology they had available.
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Hi all I’m looking for some reading on the fall of the Qing Dynasty and Chinese republic and rise of the CCP (so basically 20th century China) and also on the changing nature of warfare (from the French Revolution until WW2 but it doesn’t have to be that specific I can always read one that starts earlier and skip a bit)
Thanks I’m doing my A level exams next year and would love to get some reading done over the summer to get ahead
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There had to be some people who weren’t pro confederacy per-say but just didn’t want to fight to keep states in the union who wanted out
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In Robert Garland's course "Greece & Rome: An Integrated History of the Ancient Mediterranean", he mentions that there were doubts Caesarion was really his son with Cleopatra as he was quote, "likely already infertile at this point." Why would historians assume Caesar was potentially infertile? He would have been in his late 40's or early 50's during the time he spent with Cleopatra, certainly not outside the range of being able to father a child. Were there other sources that point to Caesar not able to father children later in life?
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From a lot of Westerns and Western-derived works, we have the popular image of cowboys hitching their horses on a horse station outside as they head into a saloon or hotel for activities.
However, recent encounters with Western media (especially actual video games like Red Dead) have made me thinking - isn't that a terribly unsafe way to keep your horse, especially if your horse is an expensive breed? Isn't riding a thoroughbred similar to driving a Porsche, and if combined with an expensive saddle and riding gear, really tempting to greedy eyes?
So I'm curious - how were horses, and their associated items (saddlebags, its contents, the saddle itself and tack etc) kept safe during those times? If there's a watchman, is it enough? Are there any forms of guarantee or insurance? Exactly how much of a loss would the loss of a favourite horse and its gear be?
Any and all info would be appreciated.
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I was reading this article on Wikipedia about the Battle of the Falklands, and at the end of the second-last paragraph in the "Contact" section, it says:
HMS Glasgow closed to finish SMS Leipzig, which had run out of ammunition but was still flying her battle ensign. SMS Leipzig fired two flares, so HMS Glasgow ceased fire.
I'm familiar with the concept of the "battle ensign", but why did the HMS Glasgow stop firing on the SMS Leipzig after she fired two flares? Is it some form of universally accepted symbol meaning "I'm out of ammunition" or "I'm sinking"?
Were there any other ways that opposing ships could communicate? I've heard that in this era, a lot of captains and admirals were stubborn about the use of radio, and still preferred using flags.
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Which books do you think are essential for those who are interested?
It can be encyclopedic, a big collection of retellings, or both! I’m looking for what many think is the greatest source of English folklore.
Thank you!
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There is a scene set in 1337 where a man trades his 18yo maiden daughter to another man for a cow. The trade is witnessed and disputed by the town's citizens but the local constable rules that the trade is legal, on the basis that the father has full control over his daughter and therefore can do what he likes with her. The new "owner" ties her on a leash and drags her away, and to be clear he doesn't seem to be expected to marry her.
Based on what I know I find it difficult to believe that this could have been allowed to happen. This is clearly slavery (which I understand to be eliminated in England by then), and clearly a violation of the customs of the local people. Is there a factor I am missing that makes the scenario realistic?
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Spoilers for an almost century-old short story follow. Providing a URL with the short story and keywords to search for, as the quotes I'm asking about would be a little long.
In the Father Brown short story "The Curse of the Golden Cross," a story purportedly taking place in the Middle Ages is shared. (In the following link, search for the words "It is rather a long story and varies":)
http://www.clerus.org/bibliaclerusonline/en/bbo.htm
It turns out that the story in question was completely made up by the teller. Father Brown gives his rationale for disbelieving the story, mostly to do with Guilds and the treatment of Jewish people at the time. (In the link, search for "I don’t claim to know a lot myself".)
This story was published in 1926. What I was wondering was, was Chesterton's understanding of the Middle Ages in the regards addressed by Father Brown accurate for the time? What does modern scholarship think of the assertions? Would the story still work in modern times?
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