The dance style I'm referring to is the one where each partner presses one palm to the others' and they move in circles while maintaining eye contact (and exchanging flirtatious banter). Is this just a trope or does it have a historical basis?

I know that there was a referendum after it where 99% or so voted in favor of it (which is enough to know the vote war partially rigged) but did Austrians generally favor the Anschluss or not?

Obviously, Mozart's titanic talent speaks for itself. But what about the stories about him, for example, that he never made fair copies of music, but wrote everything down, as if taking dictation, as a perfect first draft? Or the story that he memorized an entire mass, note perfect, on just two hearings?

Are these sorts of stories post-hoc puffery, or are they real examples of a genius we haven't seen again on Earth yet? Or somewhere in between?

How did Kinsey's research differently from Masters and Johnson? Were their goals very different?

From what I know Hannibal won many battles against great odds and nothing the Romans did could stop him, so what changed and how did it bring such a sudden end to the war?

how big was it? and what effects does it have thus far?

I'm especially curious about village life in the Soviet Union. What was daily life like for men, woman and children? Do you know of any films of this nature?

I know there is little knowledge on the Viking settlements of Vinland and such, but one would think that they would have exposed the Indians to their diseases. Also, if this had happened hundred of years prior to the conquest of the New World, would Native Americans have been better equipped to fight Europeans after being previously exposed to European diseases?

I have been reading the Bible over the past few months, and I'm curious about when the beliefs and practices of Judaism coalesced. There are references and hints in the Bible that suggest the early Israelites followed different beliefs, and that ancient Judaism was a significant break from these traditions. For example, the Israelites often worship other gods and are punished for it, most of the kings are labelled evil because they don't worship Yahweh alone, and in the early biblical books people sacrifice in many different locations instead of at one central location, as Deuteronomy commands.

In the Bible Unearthed, Neil Silberman and Israel Finkelstein argue that King Josiah imposed the core of Deuteronomy (which they say was a newly written book, not the lost law of God) as a new religious orthodoxy. They also note that the book is similar to a vassal treaty between a king (Yahweh) and his vassal state (the kingdom of Judah). Furthermore, in Who Wrote the Bible? Richard Friedman argues the Deuteronomic history was written and compiled during Josiah's reign, and that the Deuteronomist portrays Josiah as the hero who loves Yahweh and will lead his people, with God's blessing, to a glorious future.

However, the first section of Isaiah, which I believe was written during the reign of King Hezekiah (early 700s to late 600s B.C.) is strongly monotheist. This would suggest that an early form of Judaism was practiced before Josiah's reign.

My question is, when did practices and beliefs that we would recognize as an early form of Judaism (monotheism as opposed to polytheism, reverence for the Torah, sacrificing in one temple, etc.) coalesce and come together? Was it during the reign of King Hezekiah of Judah, when he attempted a religious reform of centralization? Was it during the reign of King Josiah, who revived these reforms and is so highly praised by the Deuteronomist? Or during a later period?

The standard view of Jesus (Yeshua of Nazareth) is that he claimed up-front to be the literal Son of God. By Islamic standards this is obviously horribly blasphemous, and yet Jesus is still regarded as a major prophet in Islam. How would a Muslim reconcile their faith's hardline divine unicity with a prophet who claimed to be a direct spawn/appendage of God? Or am I wrong about the general historical consensus view of Jesus, i.e. is it thought (by Muslims of anyone else) that Jesus of Nazareth did not in fact personally claim divinity, but rather the divinity of Jesus was strictly a formulation of his followers and later writers?

Im not too picky about the era. I was hoping to get an answer including the evolution of the state but ill take any answers. I'm curious if it gradually evolved into a more secular state over time (like much of europe) or if it maintained an archaic religious view. If the latter is true, I was hoping to discover if these beliefs contributed to the fall of the empire.

Like I said before though, any answers relating to the title are welcome!

Hello! I am particularly interested in Spain but i'd love to hear how others went about it!

If you'd like to really earn some karma point, I'd even love to hear how different regions and groups went about this (Catalan, Basque, Moorish Spain, etc).

Please share! Thank you in advance!!!!!