I'm confused. Did they believe that by living well, they would change God's mind in the past?

Pre-Revolution Russia, many people Russian people talk about having a picture of the Czar right next to a cross. Peasants seemed to truly see the Czar as the closest person to God. How did a political title get such a religious heir to it? Did a Czar at one point go out of their way and convince people that he was second to God? Or did the people give the title of Czar that holy heir, and the later Czars just ran with the idea? Did it become an official part of the eastern orthodox religion?

P.S. Is it Czar or Tsar? I always use Czar, but what should I use?

I've always heard that the Manhattan Project employed over 100,000 people in some way, so since this is such a large project, why was Truman never informed, until he became president?

Being a sacred place of worship, I've always wondered why there are stories of ghosts (which seems so unholy) in churches. How did this originate?

I am trying to analyze events in the Middle East that could compare to the numerous shifts in the Middle East in our current day. What event besides the spread of Islam hundreds of years ago could compare to what we are seeing today?

Or was it only a limited number of migrants (soldiers, traders, royalty?) which had an influence far beyond their numbers, with most people "Anglo-Saxon England" being Celts who had transitioned culturally until they were also Anglo-Saxons.

Since both groups were illiterate, what evidence do we have (archeological, genetic, linguistic)?

I recently saw two different BBC history programs that basically said the opposite things.

At least something has been named after Genghis?

Should Imperial Japan of the WWII era be considered a fascist-type political system? I realize that the historical and cultural context of Japan is very different from Europe, but it seems that the ideology of the Japanese extreme right must have had much in common with European fascism(s). Could it be considered fascist? What are the similarities and differences?

I'm especially interested in how, if they did, they implemented some of the ideas of the communist manifesto in the soviet union, such as land reform and workers running the factories etc.., if they were implemented what was the result? Was it successful? Or did it cause problems? And how common was it?

I was reading about Cargo Cults forming as a result of air dropped supplies reaching native populations in the Pacific, and how they drastically changed those cultures. Obviously when the war ended the air dropped supplies stopped. Did the indigenous people revert to their previous practices? Did they think their God's had abandoned them? Did they all have a western/foreign figurehead? How did these societies adapt, or did they?

Thanks

In reading the post from last year on the subject of the use of knots and nautical miles it was never mentioned how 47.33ft became the standard measure of one knot. Was there something common on tall ships that was this length or is it a simple division of a different unit of measure that has not stood the test of time translated into feet?

Did the huge amount of Gold that the Spanish were shipping from South America and central America to Spain during the 16th and 17th century, cause so much inflation that Gold became virtually worthless as there was so much of it? or is this a myth?

Second question, where did all of that Gold go?

I was just curious about this. I know that the "k" sound is pretty common in the English language but I was thinking about curse words and a lot of the stronger ones like cunt/fuck or slurs like kyke/dyke/chink or vulgar references like cock/dick contain it. I only know my own language, but is there any sort of historical pattern of that sound at the beginning or end of curse words? Maybe it's only as common as other words. I don't know.

While it's common knowledge that the settlers in North America did give smallpox infected blankets to the native population, is this same story true for the Spanish and the Meso-American natives? Did the Spanish spread the disease on purpose as a biological weapon, or was the transmission unintentional? I'd also be very grateful if you can provide some sources too.

Thanks in advance,

TheSwissPirate

So before the U.S. intervention into the Korean War at one point from the battle maps I've seen it shows that N. Korea controlled almost all of the Korean Peninsula.

And before the U.S. intervened in Vietnam (and when they did so with just advisors) the North Vietnamese seemed to be a far superior force to the Southern Vietnamese Army.

So my question is in both cases why were the North so much more effective at fighting? Was it because of their proximity to communist allies? I'm sure that played a part in it from a supply perspective. But their fighting spirit seemed that much more great than the Souths. Almost like they wanted it more.

Could people be prosecuted for thinking about democracy within the Soviet Union?