Was curious if we had any documentation for how Norse men (in roughly the 7th-10th centuries) wore there hair? I've heard of the large numbers of combs being found at Norse dig sites, but I've also heard people insist that dreadlocks were part of norse culture?

When I think of the major US wars since WWII, it's hard to consider them total victories (Korea ended with North Korea still standing, South Vietnam given over to the communists, Persian Gulf ended with Saddam still in power, Afghanistan & Iraq now in tatters). What US wars since WWII do military historians consider 'victories'?

I'm from Wales and am therefore curious as to how these languages and cultures survived. Why didn't the Brittonic people in Wales or Cornwall assimilate with Anglo-Saxon language and culture like the people in modern day England did? Or the people of Brittany with French language and culture? I would appreciate any recommended sources to read up on surrounding this question. Sorry if I've made any assumptions in my questions that are incorrect. This is my first post in this subreddit so sorry if I've broken any of the rules by mistake. Thanks!

I know only famous tidbits like Alexander, buddha statues in Afghanistan . But I would like to know more about how Greek and Indian culture/philosophy influenced each other. Did Indus Valley civilization have greek influence? Are Brahmanas influenced by Plato? How did Indo-Greeks ( are these people real?) of Gandhara influence indian history.

So many unanswered questions in my head. I don't know where to start.

It seems as if the vast majority of the suits of armor and sword hilts and such that we see in most places is just too well preserved or too ornate to ever have been used in an actual fight. Is that observation valid or were these things simply made ornate on a regular basis? Are there any well-preserved suits of armor, for example, that are well-documented to have served in battle?

Some years ago, I attended a talk by Ellis Jacob who at the time just published a book on his experiences in Japanese occupied Shanghai ("The Shanghai I Knew: A Foreign Native in Pre-Revolutionary China"). During this talk, in what seemed like an offhand remark, he claimed to have witnessed the assassination of Wang Jingwei while Wang was being chauffeur driven to his Shanghai mansion on Yu Yuen Road by Chinese men.

This struck me as a really important claim. The official narrative from the Imperial Japanese government was that Wang died months later in Japan due to wounds suffered from a previous assassination attempt (before he was made President by the occupying Japanese) and apparently this story remains unchallenged.

How would I, a layman, go about getting this story re-examined and discover if indeed he was assassinated?

What are the best sources for Hungarian paganism and what remnants of pre Christian religion(s) exist(ed) in the Christian period?

I don't know if I phrased my question very well, but...

Opium used to be easily accessible to everyone -- laudanum, patent medicines, etc. before governments stepped in and made such products controlled substances (mostly available by prescription only).

Given that a very large number of people die from overdoses every day now, I can only imagine that prior to regulation overdoses were even more common.

Is there any data on the number of overdoses prior to regulation? Perhaps a comparison to the current situation? I'm curious as to whether regulating opium products increased, decreased or didn't change the number of overdoses.

Thanks :)

EDIT: my bad guys, I clearly misunderstood the term cultural unification, it's a political one I'm wondering about.

Dutch is a Germanic language, when Germany was formed all the different Germanic sub-cultures joined, was there a plan to include the Dutch regions into the Empire?

Another direction I'm interested in is in WWII there was the Anschluss, was any efforts/plans made to attempt a similar sort of thing for the Netherlands? I mean pre-invasion, a diplomatic/political effort to join the two countries.

Thanks for any information, this question came from a dream I had haha.

edit: added a bit more to the question, can't fix spelling mistake in title though.

This is something my girlfriend mentioned to me after it came up in an art history class (the class was focused on different representations of the senses throughout Western history). Apparently some early version of the Bible says that God can smell if you're a sinner. I've tried doing some googling, and while I've found a few biblical mentions of aroma, but I'm mostly sifting through useless stuff.

Can anyone shed some light on this?

This might not be a historical question, but is there something about the wreck or its circumstances that really captured the imagination in such a unique way?

I'm not positive whether this is the correct sub-reddit for this inquiry (r/badhistory?), but I'll try. Years ago, I'd come across an online book by some Soviet historian who had crafted a revisionist world history, completely re-writing events and their contexts, from as far back as ancient Greece, all the way to At Least the Ottoman conquest of Constantinople. The conceit of the book was that he had a theory that the ancient world had been "made up", so to say (I believe that was his theory), by folks in the more-modern (Early-Modern?) world, and as if that isn't enough, he further insisted that many of the historical events of the ancient world were actually modern events superimposed upon this "made-up" period in the past, for the purpose, I believe, of sort of rounding-out this otherwise-sparse period.

Other specific aspects of this work which I can still recall included his providing an illustration of, say, the Fall of Troy, which had been made during the Middle Ages, the artist of which had portrayed these Trojans in distinctly Medieval attire (basically, he had drawn them as though they were contemporaries, as folks are wont to do); the Soviet historian had insisted that this "proved" that Troy had actually fallen in modern times, and that the myth was actually an echo of the actual Fall of Constantinople. Other choice tidbits were things such as "Alexander the Great was actually Mehmet the Conqueror", etc etc for hundreds of pages.

Now, I recall neither the name of the historian nor the title of his book. I had stumbled upon it by accident and, as though stunned, proceeded to read through it for hours. Eventually, my digression had to end and I continued my real studies and the bizarre history was more or less pushed to the recesses of my mind. But every once in a while it comes to the fore and I find myself excited all over again by the sheer audacity and outlandishness and quasi-erudition. But, alas, I have never found the source again. Now, however, I have discovered reddit and its wonderful subreddits. So my question is: Who was this man? What was his "great" work? How was he able to create it--delusion, dedication to the propaganda machine, both? What do other historians make of him?

Thank you

Feels like most words for somewhat modern concepts in their language are simply English words with Japanese pronunciation (computer/konpyūtā, advertise/adobataizu and so on). This seems strange for a language that's not related to English in any way.

Also, when Rome rolled over the world and conquered everything did they ever have any alliances with each other?

If so, how does it compare to current America?

I've been wanting to read up on him for some time, what are some recommended books?

I know very little about Spanish and Portugese history, so forgive me if I make some factual errors here. Looking at maps from about 1500 onward, it seems the entities that we know as Spain and Portugal have essentially kept their current borders to the present day, right after the expulsion of the Moors and the end of Muslim influence over the Iberian peninsula.

Why is this? Was there something inherently more stable about Iberia than the rest of the European continent? Did geography play a role?