I freely confess in this question that my knowledge of Oriental history is not as complete as that of Europe, though I am not completely in the dark. I am also aware that until the mid-XVIII century, China published more books than any other nation on Earth (though I do not know whether this is simply due to a larger population or not). Why is it that the Sung did not see a printing revolution of the sort Europe had for the same invention? Or did such a revolution occur that I am not aware of?

This question came to me and I am intrigued for an answer. I have a potential response or two (a non-alphabetic script made movable type nonetheless impractical) but I can only idly speculate without more knowledge and I fear I am wildly off. Has this forum an explanation?

I remember learning very little about them in elementary school, but I'd like to know more about the Natives that lived in the New York/Pennsylvania/New Jersey area.

Why did Europe's nations expend so much time and money trying to colonize and exploit new land all the way across the Atlantic ocean when they had the whole of Africa right across the Med? And why did they suddenly change their mind about Africa in the 19th century?

It seems like Africa would have offered the best return on investment for any colonial-minded expeditions using 16th century technology, but instead everyone focused on sailing tiny, barely-seaworthy ships across the open ocean for months at a time.

What context am I missing, here? Why not Africa?

So I'm looking for a final paper topic for my research seminar over Imperial Rome. While Reading Tacitus and Suetonius, there are brief mentions of some Caesars and other prominent figures in Rome keeping freedmen and perhaps slaves in their close circles as colleagues and advisors. My fear in pursuing this topic is the potential lack of good sources as well as information in general. Few are mentioned by name by Tacitus or Suetonius, and these people are not elaborated on much beyond mention. Are there other sources out there that discuss the roles of freedmen among Roman officials?

Does BC actually stand for another Latin phrase?

Also, which ones? Were those diseases also carried to Europe or other places Europeans navigated to (like Africa, Asia)?

Would peasants in 1000 CE know it was that year? 1500 CE? Or did it come into popular use earlier?

Sorry if it's a really obvious answer I am completely unaware of. I just thought that it would be more effective and timely if they directly invaded and destroyed Nazi Germany, since then France (and other Nazi-controlled areas) would also be freed.

I was reading this morning's post about non-Africans as slaves. I could not find a good way to fit this into original question, but I wanted to ask. I have always been a fan of Twain, and I have wondered if the plot device was realistic. The plot involves a female slave who is 1/16th African and has a son by her master. The master's wife dies in childbirth at about the same time as the slave's child is born, and the slave ends up taking care of both children. She decides to switch them so that her son will grow up free. The book is a scathing criticism of slavery and prejudice.

I did a search but didn't find much to answer this question.

EDIT: I did some addition reading on the book. I was wrong about the ratio. The child was 1/32nd African. The mother was 1/16. The basic point still stands because the doctrine was that one drop of African blood was all that was needed to be a slave.

Sorry about the odd question.

I live in Brazil and here most Historians are adept of either the Annales School, Historical Materialism or Positivism. I was just curious about the USA (or even other countries, but since the majority of Reddit is American, I guessed it could have more answers)

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I'm curious if IEDs in the past were something other than a roadside bomb.