This is touched upon in the book Gone with the Wind but I am uncertain if he actually did go to Europe to get immigrants into the armies.

The books can be in German, Dutch or English

Lately I've been interested in the pyramids and how they evolved from simple mastabas put on each other into more complex buildings like the Bent Pyramid, and of course, the Great Pyramid of Giza, and then how they stopped building true pyramids when the power of the Old Kingdom collapsed.

However, what strucks me that there were seemingly no attempt to surpass the height and grandiosity of Khufu's pyramid. Considering that during the almost 4000 years between its completition and the building of the Lincoln Cathedral, there were several empires, rulers and emperors of whom many were just as ambitious as the pharaohs were, I'm surprised to see that noone even tried to build something more impressive than these ancient wonders. Or were there unsuccessful attempts?

We talk about the fall of Rome as though it were a concrete event, but what did it actually look like?

Or Tuco-Altaic, if that term is more correct.

In the past year I've toured several of the Vauban citadels in France and have gotten contradictory information about this. Many of the guides say oil was too valuable, this never really happened, or maybe happened once or twice and became a legend. Others say that pouring hot oil, water, or waste through the murder holes was, if not routine, at least an established defensive technique that was taught to soldiers.

I'm interested in this in terms of general history but particularly about whether or not this would have happened in France between say 1600 and 1800.

I did a search on this sub but the only answer I found was before our glorious mods cracked down, so it was mostly "oh yeah it happened" or "totally did not happen" with no citations.

EDIT: I did some cursory googling, and I saw various opinions, still contradictory. I'm really looking for a primary source here, or at least a reputable academic reference.

Expanding upon that, what are some possible ideas regarding how modern speakers could be perceived by speakers of older forms of English? Would it be basically incomprehensible?

I'm interested in pretty much any period and place before germ theory was applied to food borne illnesses. Are there any records of cleanliness standards in the kitchens of royalty (or anyone else obscenely rich)? Would pots have regularly been washed? Did people bother to clean a knife they had used to slice raw chicken, for instance, before they used it to slice raw fruit or vegetables? Was there any awareness that food needed to be heated a certain amount or it could make you sick?

I'm aware of some records of well known deaths from food poisoning, is there any indication of how common it was in the general population?

Specifically the media?

This is probably a very easy answer for a historian. I was reading over the events of Pearl Harbor today when I came to the sinking of the Arizona, in many accounts it states that when the magazines blew it killed 1177 of the 1512 crew on board. When I looked up the details of the Arizona though it always lists the crew as 55 officers and 860 men.

What were all the other men doing on the Arizona that day? There are 597 men on board that day that I can't seem to find a reason for. From what I know of Navy ships (which isn't a ton) they are very spartan so adding 75% more men should have the Arizona just packed to the walls. I'm not saying they weren't there, I'm just curious if the crew size is listed inaccurately or maybe didn't count a contingent of Marines.

To them, was the unsettled Frontier just a big mystery? With theoretical mountain ranges and rivers, and eventually, another coast against another ocean? How far west did they believe it stretched? And was the American Revolution fought with the idea that JUST the 13 colonies would be independent, or all of that land to the west would fall to the colonies as well?

Did they just send a runner through No Man's Land to lob it in? That's what I'm thinking, but that can't possibly have been effective .

Why didn't the us detonate a bomb in an uninhabited area near japan to demonstrate the power of the weapon so that the japanese would surrender without destroying populated cities?

I've seen them referred to as a hate group . Why do people say this when racial supremacy was never part of their program? They didn't just wantonly murder whites for the color of their skin like the kkk did. Sure, they did in a few cops but that wasn't based on race hate. Is there any validity to them constantly being depicted as a sort of black Klan? (Side note: I'm specifically referring to the original bpp. I do think the new bpp is racist, but they're irrelevant. )

Another example would be "Les Misérables." Why are some titles kept original while other titles like "War and Peace" and "100 Years of Solitude" etc. translated?

It's just something that's very subtle to the point where you don't even think twice about it.

Green tends to represent "go", "right", or "good", while red represents "stop", "wrong" or "bad". A green checkmark means success, while a red X means failure. How did this come to be? When was the first time that red and green were used as such?