Any place in the Americas will do, I just want to get an idea of whether or not it was commonplace.

I know somehow that jazz (or possibly blues) was a huge precursor to the music we know today, but I can' quite put my finger on why, nor can I find the information online. So I was wondering if any music historians could help me out, if any music historians hang about on this sub that is. Thanks

I'm sort of spinning my wheels in life, and I'm thinking about going back to school. I just am very uncertain about what path to take.

My background: I graduated in 2011 from Rutgers with a BA in History and a 3.45 GPA. My GPA in my Major is considerably better, probably close to a 3.7. However, my transcript is literally shot through with holes. I went to RU for 2 years straight out of High School and after a successful first semester (in their honors program), promptly shit the bed- failed multiple classes, withdrew from others. I left with probably less than a 2.5 and joined the Army. After about 5 years I went back to school and did very well, pulling my GPA out of the gutter. Beyond just GPA, for what it's worth, I had almost perfect SAT scores, made Sergeant in ~3 years, and was President and founding member of a very successful fraternity. I've always had a knack for writing and did very well on research papers for my school's toughest graders- I'd feel very strong submitting writing samples to any program I apply to. However, since graduation I haven't done much to write home about- just working some blue-collar jobs to pay the bills.

What I want to do: To be honest, I don't really know. I have 3 semesters of GI Bill time left. I've got a decent amount of student debt, but not enormous (~$30k). I really enjoyed the Classics courses I took, but I discovered my love for Antiquity too late in my college career to make majoring in Classics possible. (My late uncle was a Princeton Classics man, and had the keenest wit of anyone I've ever known.) I have 4 years of high school Latin under my belt, but I remember very little. I've looked at various PhD programs and they generally require fluency in German, French, or Italian. I've got 2 semesters of Spanish, and to be honest, my biggest weakness as a student is listening to foreign languages (reading and writing I am very good at.)

It just seems that there is no straightforward path to anything I'd like to do. I could pay a bunch of money to get an Education degree, but I wouldn't really be learning any history, just paying for the privilege of teaching high school. I could use my remaining GI Bill time to learn some languages and apply to a PhD program, but I'll be financing that on my own, and if I don't get in the language instruction is for naught.

Likewise, I could go back and do a second BA in Classics- what I should have done in the first place. But let's be honest, in this day and age, can anyone say that going for a second Bachelor's in Classics is a responsible decision?

Perhaps someone here can point me in the right direction. I think my ideal route would be to work on a Master's Degree that I could finance with my GI Bill, and pick up the necessary language skills for the future while doing this, then apply to a PhD program, but I'm not sure if this is something that exists. I'm terribly bad at navigating bureaucracy and would appreciate any guidance or insight.

Hi everyone -- I'm working on a project involving Germany's occupation of a Micronesian island (between 1898 and 1914), and I'd like to better understand how policies there fit into the bigger picture of pre-WWI German Empire. Many of the German officials in the Pacific also worked in Africa at some point in their careers, and I'd like to better understand how these different imperial spheres fit together. Any suggestions for secondary material that might be helpful?

I know that initially they started off as more of a way to gain recon on the opposing side, but did they play any further roles later on in the war?

From what I have read, both Crimea and Kaliningrad hold two of the major bases of the russian army (one for the Baltic Sea and another for the Black Sea).

Knowing this, I don't get to understand why in 1954 Crimea was annexed to Ukraine, but Kaliningrad stayed Russian. Is there anything I'm missing?

According to Herodotus, book I, the battle between Croesus of Lydia and Cyrus of Persia was decided by this fact:

The reason why Cyrus opposed his camels to the enemy's horse was because the horse has a natural dread of the camel, and cannot abide either the sight or the smell of that animal Is there any truth to this statement?

Since they could produce them so quickly and efficiently.

In history class today we had a teacher blame the entire thing on the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, causing the Kaiser to egg the Austrian-Hungary Empire to declare war on Serbia. I can see how that would cause a conflict between those two countries but don't understand how it led or what really cause the entirety of the First World War. Help me out!

Thanks

Okay so my dad who grew up and lived in Czechoslovakia from 1965 to 1992, told me that this happened to political prisoners but to be honest he may have just been saying that to mess with me so I'm not sure. Is this claim true or is he just bullshitting me?

Were they actually saying "Yarr" constantly? or do the media just get the small amount of 'interesting bits' from pirate history and base everything off that?

Like the title says. I'd also like to know if auctioneers speaking fast is a normal thing or simply an exaggeration in movies. If so then how did it start? If not then how did this practice start?

Edit: The period I am referring to is pre-civil war slave auctions in america

I know reforms would be something completely ludicrous or even anachronistic ...

But I'm sure they knew very well, the situation of women.

At least Did they had empathy?

In more simple terms, did the Duwamish and Suquamish tribes have their larger settlements where Seattle and Bellevue are? The same for Kitsaps with Bremerton, Puyallups/Nisqually with Tacoma, Squamish/Musqueams with Vancouver, etc? If there were significant differences, why did things develop differently when the Europeans arrived?

Sorry, I couldn't resist. Anyway, Wikipedia tells us that the Ottomans primarily called the city Kostantiniyye during their rule and the name was only officially changed by the Atatürk government in 1930. Why the change?