Like, which civilization was the first to have enough power to be considered "great" and "powerful" in their known area?

Includes drugs taken by performers, composers and patrons/fans.

I ask because of the Superbowl. The ads for alcohol are so prevalent and suggestive. Did our ancestors advertise alcohol like we do today? Relatively speaking of course. At sporting events, big gatherings etc. Also, did big alcohol manufacturers have the same amount of influence in those ancient cultures as companies like Anheuser Busch have today?

I just watched the 1944 short film "With The Marines At Tarawa" and was wondering if the background sounds we hear during the film (as opposed to the narration) was recorded with the film stock during the battle, or if it's post-production sound added to the movie to enhance the viewer experience?

The American declaration of independence is considered a big deal in the founding of the country. When other countries divide or separate do they have declarations of independence and are they considered sacred documents to the peoples of that country?

My dad told me that the Muslim caliph Abu Bakr instituted a minimum wage-esque policy during his rule. Was this the first time it happened? Were there other empires or people among whom this had ready happened?

I ask this question out of curiosity. First question to be answered would be : Was Hitler actually so fanatically anti-semetic as people put him out to be? Did he actually even dislike the jews, or was he simply playing up the anti-semetism in his book Mein Kampf in order to win the support of the anti-semetic populace in Germany? If he really didn't hate the Jews, wouldn't it have been easier to intern them in camps, rather than wasting resources to transport them all over and exterminate them? Or was exterminating them in this way actually more efficient than keeping them alive? If I am correct, the genocide was actually hidden quite well by the German government, so in theory, he could have just kept them alive and continued spreading the propaganda that he was while he was indeed killing them. So really the answer I'm seeking here is what is the precise reason that it is thought that Hitler tried exterminating the people?

I was watching The Butler, and it takes place post World War II but they make no mention of Asian Americans.

Questions: What was life like for Asian Americans before World War II? What was life like for Asian Americans after World War II? Were Asian Americans discriminated against the same way African Americans were before, during and after the Civil Rights movement? Were Asian Americans the target of the KKK and lynching as well? Were Asian Americans allowed to go to white schools and vote? Were Asian Americans treated differently based on whether they were East Asian (i.e. Chinese) or South Asian (i.e. Indian)?

I'm thinking about the Flying Fortress style heavy bombers.

This covers a few aspects:

1. Defensive machine guns. These bombers fly in these dense 3D formations and the defensive gunners must hit high speed targets, so I'd imagine stray bursts hitting other planes. Did that happen a lot and was this managed or trained for? Did enemy fighters actually cross insidethe bomber mass at all?

2. When dropping bombs, did bombers ever hit each other? I'd say a freefalling metal bomb would make a huge hole into an airframe, taking of a wing easily. The airforce must been aware of this, how was this managed?

3. Mid-air collisions seem a danger, with some many airplanes in one volume, bad weather, flak etc.

So I was just looking at some stuff about the tomb of Tutankhamen and I noticed something that seem confusing to me. Why are the Great Pyramids of Giza located so far away from the Valley of the Kings?

I know that South American peoples had llamas, alpacas and chickens, and that both Americas had dogs. Were there any other domestic animals in the Americas pre-Columbian contact? Did North America have reindeer/carabou herding tribes like the Saami?

I have read that virtually no historian doubts their authenticity, but never as to why this is the case. Can somebody who is familiar with these texts provide an insight?

I'm mostly asking about Europe, but this could be asked about many other parts of the world as well. Basically what I'm asking is how did the Nobles become the Nobles and the Peasants become the Peasants? Is it simply a mystery? Hope my question isn't too vague.

I would go as far to say that it showed the world that resistance to foreign rule was possible, i.e. Gandhi a few years later. Any thoughts?