Now, the middle class and working class has been trending towards this pattern in other countries (see the rise of the 'Professional-Managerial Class, or PMC), but the U.S. seems to have held this pattern for a long time. The high-income northeast is now largely dominated by progressive/liberal democrats, but even before that, the region was largely purple, with the Republicans who were popular there largely being moderate, maybe even liberal, Rockefeller Republicans. Meanwhile, states like West Virginia, which have largely been blue-collar, only went to democrats when they were at their most moderate according to DW-NOMINATE. Ditto with the largely low-income south. And previous to that, those sort of states (minus the south of course) went heavily to conservative, 'pro-business' Republicans like Warren G. Harding and William McKinley, with the biggest advocates of progressive policies being the middle class-led progressive movement.

I know there isn't a definite single answer, but I'd like to know some factors that kickstarted Europe's 'age of discovery.' And out of all countries, why did it start off in the Iberian Peninsula?

We were just taught about this era in school but I was unsatisfied with the teacher's explanation. I felt it was too simplified, especially for high school. And, I'm skeptical about my teacher since she said that people (whoever that refers to) were still divided on wether the Earth was round or flat.

Anyway, here's what we were taught:

• The Ottoman Empire 'shut down" land trade routes through Asia.
• Muslim traders were jacking up the price.
• spices

I searched around past posts/threads but didn't find anything that quite answered my question. I know it's a very broad question but I hope someone can explain even a small part of it.

-thanks very much in advance!

Context: In the diaries of one of my ancestors he meets one such person and i am really curious about how his life would have been like. I know he spoke English and some French and travelled from Italy to France on a ship, the journey had been paid for him, he didnt have any money on him and he would take up work as a servant in France. Would his parents likely have been slaves? How much and what kind of racism would he have had to face? Would he have grown up with an education? I unfortunately only find info on well-off black Americans travelling through Europe at the time or people like Alexandre Dumas who were mixed and well connected.

A large segment of the Hungarian economy consists of growing various kinds of paprika, selling some of it fresh, turning the rest into various powders (sweet, smoked, spicy).

As far I know, besides Hungary there's Mexico that bases so much of its cuisine and export around paprika?

I have read that the church had banned the use of tritones in music several hundred years ago (sorry dont know when). Were people writing classical music with these forbidden intervals at that time? Or were they banned on a more theoretical basis?

Basically the title, when did Britain stop being an absolute monarchy and become what is today (i.e. a constitutional monarchy where there is a monarch but they have almost no real power and instead there are elections for Prime Ministers and stuff).

So I really enjoy waterparks, and if communist societies don't allow visits to waterparks I am going to be very anti-communist. Being said I am more so just curious as to how that worked with a government where these things are owned by the government, like would you trade ration tickets or something?

I can imagine that ever since there were more than two groups of people it would have been normal to send someone from group A to talk to group B. But in modern times everyone has ambassadors and embassies in multiple countries staffed year round. How did this begin?

Was there public outcry for duels to be banned? Or was this just an average day where the average American paid no mind to the event?

I have heard the caste system was pretty fluid prior to colonialism so I am wondering if there were inter-caste marriages or inter-caste dining prior to colonialism?

For instance did Muslim or Buddhist kings in India promote this?

I recently saw an article about how Abraham Lincoln was "not actually opposed to slavery" . I spent a few hours searching online to gain clarity and I'm finding some conflicting answers. Was hoping someone with knowledge could help me to clarify and better understand. Thank you in advance!

Was reading how native Americans were sterialized in the 70s and was wondering how that even managed to get "approval" by the government or the members who voted.

Bonus question. Can we get a list of who voted for this to be allowed? Wouldn't that be public record?

The passage reads:

“The northern portion of the earth was supposed to be inhabited by a happy race named the Hyperboreans, dwelling in everlasting bliss and spring beyond the lofty mountains whose caverns were supposed to send forth the piercing blasts of the north wind, which chilled the people of Hellas (Greece). Their country was inaccessible by land or sea. They lived exempt from disease or old age, from toils and warfare. Moore has given us the "Song of a Hyperborean," beginning 8

"I come from a land in the sun-bright deep, Where golden gardens glow, Where the winds of the north, becalmed in sleep, Their conch shells never blow." On the south side of the earth, close to the stream of Ocean, dwelt a people happy and virtuous as the Hyperboreans. They were named the Aethiopians. The gods favored them so highly that they were wont to leave at times their Olympian abodes and go to share their sacrifices and banquets.”

Hello guys, I am pretty new in studying history. I bought Bertrand Russell's History of Western philosophy recently. I just read 7 to 10 pages everyday. Do you have strategy to finish the book fast or it is normal to read history books slow to understand them completely. Please share the tips if you have some.

Regards,

There have always been atheistic people, we know of a few greek, roman and indian philosophers who were atheist for example, but what about later in the Middle Ages?

If a person in the Medieval Europe started saying openly they don't believe that any god or gods exist, what would have happened to that person?

Would the inquisition or their government persecuted them for blasphemy?, would they be rejected by their society?

To be more exact:

How did such a great quantity (Wiki says Thailand: 14,458,800 including ancestry, Malaysia: 10,000,000 including ancestry, and Singapore: 4,071,000 including ancestry) come to inhabit those countries?

What's their history in those places? (how were they treated, how did they maintain and/or adapt their culture, that kinda stuff)

Information on the history of Han Chinese in other Southeast Asian countries would also be appreciated.

Was it similar or different to how the Soviets did it? What would happen to Jews once free? Would the Americans just let them be or would they help them in any way such as providing food, medical support, and helping them get home?