Also a couple of assumptions I've made, please correct me if I'm wrong!
1.) Early societies that haven't discovered agriculture don't have a calendar so one's date of birth is insignificant.
2.) Assuming that "legal age" is relative from culture to culture, is this the reason way rites of passage were created? (ex. kill a tiger and you become a man)
3.) I only mostly hear about rites of passages in the context of boys becoming men and not much about girls becoming women, is this because most cultures use a girl's first period as their transition to womanhood?
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I know the shot was developed in 1924, was this in response to problems seen in the Great War?
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I've been reading a little about Borderers, and it seems like they were largely able to raid, pillage, and terrorise with impunity. Why were they not brought under control by the monarchy of either kingdom? I assume it has something to do with both parties arguing it was the other's problem.
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I guess the most famous elves with pointy ears are from the Lord of the Rings. But stories and folklore about elves and pixies are much older. Did they always have different ears than humans, or is it something that Tolkien gave them and is now widely adopted in fairy tales and in the fantasy genre in general? Or does it have a different origin?
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Apologies if this is not the correct subreddit. I am attempting to convince a problematic friend of how wrong the Clean Wehrmacht myth is.
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Was the perception of the new world like a sort of 17th century lebensraum? I noticed that most places on the east coast when colonised were called new something, e.g New York or new Sweden. Can someone explain the reasoning behind this? Especially considering places in Africa and Asia didn’t get the same naming treatment.
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DISCLAIMER: language in general is a difficult thing for me, so if this feels choppy, unrefined or blunt, that is why; I did my best
I am doing some research on the J-27 'super spitfire' and B/J-24 manufactured by Saab because these aircraft are a topic that has interested me in recent months (by the content of my requests you will probably be able to tell there is something else to it, but that's a completely different topic of conversation). However, information is particularly sparse on the internet and so I have struggled to build much information about them. there seems to be a distinct lack of anything available that isn't Wikipedia pages or forum posts discussing similar topics.
So to the point. I am looking for information regarding these two designs, so that I can build the picture I need to build. The information I am looking for is mostly image references and information regarding the two that I will list now:
I know these are a lot of requirements, but this is for a specific purpose (as well as being incredibly interesting to me).
thanks for any help you can give!
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I am not sure if this is the write place for this, but I believe you are the right people to help me. I am teaching at an elite private high school and am trying to help my American Experiment students (an honors course combining the teaching of history, culture, and literature) gain a literacy for academic writing. I was hoping that you all could recommend undergraduate reading level journal articles on the following time periods of American History (almost any topic would be helpful).
The 1920s
The Cold War
The 1960s
The 1990s
Unfortunately, most of my graduate school academic knowledge is from the Civil War.
Thanks for your help!
Nic
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Considering the efforts that were made in the Old Kingdom, when the Pyramids on the Giza plateau were built, TT 33 (a non-royal grave) or especially KV 5 (a tomb for some of the sons of Rameses II) wouldn't it made some more sense if the architects and tomb builders of the New Kingdom made the subterranian graves of their Pharaohs a lot larger and more mazelike and include other features to protect the safety of their tombs?
And why didn't they usually built them with multiple floors?
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Please Be Aware: We expect everyone to read the rules and guidelines of this thread. Mods will remove questions which we deem to be too involved for the theme in place here. We will remove answers which don't include a source. These removals will be without notice. Please follow the rules.
Some questions people have just don't require depth. This thread is a recurring feature intended to provide a space for those simple, straight forward questions that are otherwise unsuited for the format of the subreddit.
Here are the ground rules:
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I have a novel idea for a romance retelling set in 18th century France. I'm planning it to take place in either Foix or Marseilles, and it's about 2 nobles falling in love, the man being the count of that region. Do you have any knowledge about what was life like the nobles nearby and the common folk that served him? Anything could be useful
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All these historical movies portraits vikings as warriors on foot. Horses are used for farming.
It surely would be advantage against fighting other European countries which used cavalry. So why vikings did not bring cav to the battlefields?
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So I've tried looking for some sources that make a numerical distinction between the casualties of British troops from the UK itself and those from British colonies who fought under their flag as well. Every source I've looked into so far only has the total of about 384,000 military deaths, all with a note that this includes the colonies as well.
As for the second part in the title, do we know how many British colonial troops volunteered vs. were conscripted? What was the reaction like in those colonies to men being conscripted?
If it's even possible, I think it'd be interesting to take a look at a breakdown by country, but anything that could point me in the right direction would be appreciated.
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I'm not sure from the group rules if I'm allowed to ask here about historical architecture, or if I should post in a different group. If I should post somewhere else I will.
There's a building I found on an abandoned farm that looks a little out of place. I think it might have been a chapel, but it's a square building, maybe 16/20 square meters, and has a door either side so you could walk in a straight line from one door and go out the other, which I've not seen before.
The thing that made it look like a chapel was it had quite elaborate windows, tiled floor and some sort of carved wooden molding that went around the top of the walls. The rest of the farm buildings had nothing like this. The farm was part of a large estate built in the 16th century, and the farm provided the main house with food. I can well imagine there would be a private chapel for the main house, I've seen that on another estate in the area... but other the other estate, the chapel was separate from the house and farm, and this one is smack bang next to the farm, and not near to the main house. Was it maybe so the farm workers could quickly worship, and then get back to work? Or was it something else entirely, like a milking parlor or a place to conduct business between the farm and the estate?
I have a few photos here (interior), here (exterior), and here (interior details) but they're not that good, sorry! I looked at historical ordnance survey maps and can't see a chapel marked on there.
Would be grateful to hear any theories, thank you!
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I've just read multiple articles about how history in text books are usually very biased, having a protagonist and antagonist. How do i find history books that do not have this "us vs them" view? I want to learn about history as it was, not how it is presented by a specific country for their goals.
Sorry if unclear, english is not my first language.
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I know that he saw slavs as lesser beings compared to Germanic people, but Czechia has a long history with Germans (Holy Roman Empire, Germans invited to live in the later so called Sudetenland, it was part of Austria - Hungary for hundreds of years, Czechs almost spoke only German during the reign of Maria Theresa and Joseph II. and also Czechs are probably the most germanic and least slavic country out of other slavic countries). So what was his point of view on them?
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Emilio Aguinaldo made an interview to a spanish newspaper in 1958, published shortly after his death in 1962. This interview was published after his death by a newspaper under the franquist regime in Spain, so the source might not be all that trustworthy. Here is a modern article with some pieces of the interview in the same newspaper, and here in the spanish wikipedia article for Emilio Aguinaldo.
The original quote in spanish is: " Sí. Estoy arrepentido en buena parte por haberme levantado contra España y, es por eso, que cuando se celebraron los funerales en Manila del Rey Alfonso de España, yo me presenté en la catedral para sorpresa de los españoles. Y me preguntaron por qué había venido a los funerales del Rey de España en contra del cual me alcé en rebelión… Y, les dije que sigue siendo mi Rey porque bajo España siempre fuimos súbditos, o ciudadanos, españoles pero que ahora, bajo los Estados Unidos, somos tan solo un Mercado de consumidores de sus exportaciones, cuando no parias, porque nunca nos han hecho ciudadanos de ningún estado de Estados Unidos… Y los españoles me abrieron paso y me trataron como su hermano en aquel día tan significativo… "
Loosely translated by me to english reads like: " Yes. I regret to a large extent revolting against Spain and, that's why, when the funerals for the king Alfonso [XIII] of Spain were celebrated in Manila, I showed up in the cathedral to the surprise of the spaniards. They asked me why had I come to the funeral of the king against who I rebelled... I told them that he continues to be my king because under the spanish rule we were always spanish subjects or citizens, but now, under the USA, we are just a consumer market for their exports, when not pariah, because they never made us citizens of any state in the USA... And the spanish opened the way for me and treated me like a brother in that significant day [the funeral?]"
Does this seem a trustworthy quote? How accurately does Aguinaldo's opinion reflect the general feelings of the filipinos after achieving independence?
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Basically what events led to the luftwaffe to becoming overpowered and stop bombing Britain.
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Hello historians! Thank you so much for looking at my question! I'm attempting to write a short story about a woman born in the 1880s in Cornwall and rising from poverty to live in London by 1940. While it's easy to find what England was like in the late Victorian era and pre-World war II I'm having lots of trouble finding information on life in growing up in Cornwall specifically. Ideally the character in question had a hard life before turning to the arts sometime in the twenties, going deaf around that time, and having a Moll Flanders-esque string of marriages landing her in comfortable living by 1940. I just can't seem to find anything on society's treatment of deaf people at that time, how courtship shifted from 1905 to 1940, or exactly what kind of conditions she would have grown up in if she was born of penniless Cornish parents. Cornwall appeared to be a very heavy piracy and smuggling laden region for quite some time, too: how and when did that change? Thank you again so much for reading! Please answer what you can. Edit. Should add that I'm aiming for a criminal background but it's not a priority. Edit 2. A couple of people have commented on this post but for some reason I can't see what those comments were??????
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I was doing some light reading about the conflict and this question kept bothering me. When reading about individual battles, I noticed that historians seem somewhat skeptical about the Japanese casualties assessments. I also know that after defeats in the Pacific (like Midway), the Japanese went to great lengths to cover up the scale of their losses. Meanwhile, everytime I have seen someone write about Japanese losses overall in China, they seem to depend entirely on the Japanese claims. This strikes me as a bit suspect. Am I right to be suspicious? I know the Chinese were often tragically outmatched and that the data for the conflict is pretty lacking overall. But surely some historian has done a deeper assessment of this.
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Perhaps I am misunderstanding it, but I don't see anything wrong with emphasizing the personalities of the people in history, not just the processes. I am not saying that it is the only way to view history, but I think it could be yet another valuable lens along with looking at processes and movements, and other things outside of the personality.
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If a King had twin boys, and both grew to full health and adulthood, how would it be decided which twin would be king?
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I always get confused on this. Are the Gaels Celts? And if the answer is yes, are they a nation, a tribe, or some sort of subgroup? Who was living in Ireland before the arrival of these Celts, and is there any remaining evidence of these people? Because it seems that there isn't any at all.
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