Most people associate the pacific front with the worst brutality and savagery seen in the second world war, with one of the biggest examples being the Marine Corps use of flamethrowers, but why was it not as common against the nazi war machine? Especially once GIs stumbled upon the concentration camps and they became less civilized in the fight against Germany in the late war. The only reason I can think of is the close quarters of clearing out tunnels and jungle warfare against Japan, but the late battles such as Iwo Jima and Okinawa were almost large scale sieges of the island with naval bombardment and artillery playing huge roles, seemingly similar to sieges of Nazi held towns or even Normandy. Was it a Marine Corps-specific tactic as they did not deploy to Europe?

I feel like this is self explanatory, but with the admittedly cursory knowledge I have of philosophy from the Greeks onward it seems like pretty much any philosopher of note would either have been of a status that they possessed the liberty or means to get their ideas out there, or already were / would eventually become, well known for other reasons.

Thank you.

I disagree with the proposition that it is only recently that women decided to fight back against misogyny and oppression. Help me learn more about the resistance from & revolution by women in our past ( any period/era' preferably pre 17th century), their writings, interesting/important personalities, and how they shaped our world- more simply, Her-story. Please share some insights and book recc from your field of study.

On a side note, how are historians today trying to find a balance in making the accounts of past representative of all genders, which I feel was mostly neglected by historians in 20th century?

Ps- If I've erred in making any particular assumption above, please correct me. Thanks

Hey everyone, I have a few questions about World War 2.

1.) Does anyone know the average age of Wehrmacht soldiers year-by-year during the war? I would guess that between 1942 and 1945 the average age decreased as Germany was starting to taste more and more defeat and requiring more manpower. I've read a few accounts that describe quite a few young (16-18 years old) German soldiers in Normandy in 1944 because manpower was becoming a significant issue. However, I have also learned that there were some much older men defending Berlin in 1945, but not sure how prevalent that was. There's also a pretty well-known picture of either a 15- or 16-year-old German soldier crying after being captured by the American soldiers. Was that age common late in the war?

2.) I'd love to hear any thoughts on the 'clean Wehrmacht myth'. I'm aware that there were some German soldiers who may not have had much knowledge about the atrocities being committed, but I have no idea how prevalent it was for the average Wehrmacht soldier to have genuinely been unaware of how widespread and horrible their war crimes were. But I would venture a guess that there would be a decent probability of Germans on the front-lines (especially the western front) not being exposed or informed about it. Then again, the magnitude was so great that I'm not sure how small or big the portion of the ignorant may have been. I do feel some empathy for the Germans who didn't know about the atrocities, especially the young conscripts, just because war (and WW2 in particular) was absolute hell. And just to be absolutely clear, I know that a very large portion of German soldiers were either complicit or active participants in war crimes, and I have no sympathy for those ones at all. Was there a difference in awareness of Nazi war crimes between Wehrmacht soldiers on the eastern front vs. the western front?

TLDR; bold parts are my questions; talking about the Wehrmacht, not the SS because it's universally known how blatantly evil they were. But any info is appreciated

Edit: grammar & wording

Seems sorta far fetched

Why was disco only really a thing for about three years? It seemed to me like a massive explosion of creativity and culture. Same for New Wave, both of these scenes appear to have been beaten to death by the public

So I have read about 20years worth of Peanuts comic strips and literally know like everything there is to know about Peanuts and Charles Schultz and so I’m just wondering like at what point could I call myself one since I obviously could never get a degree in Peanuts. I know there’s the Peanuts museum where people work and give tours so maybe only they could be called Peanuts historians??

Are there similar multilingual inscriptions used to translate other ancient languages? Has a similar transcription been found in Egypt or are we just real lucky to have found this one?

I know the Romans kept extensive records about all kinds of things, especially historically significant events. What about in palestine between 5bce-40ce?

In the video game Hearts of Iron IV, it is possible to lose entire divisions of 10k men after their convoys have been intercepted by submarines, has this ever happened in reality? (Outside of the Mongols and their incidents with the hurricanes)

What I'm wondering is, if it is realistic for stories, customs, traditions or rituals to be passed along for thousands of years? I've heard a few oral histories of peoples, that seem to connect back to neolithic times. Sometimes either the stories themselves, the story-teller or the historians seem to reference/argue this.

The mythology of vampires seems to often depict them as little more than undead/possessed blood-drinking creatures to be afraid of.

And yet they became dark romantic bad boys/girls in stories like Dracula and Carmilla. But why did they specifically get this treatment?

And where did their ubiquitous traits like the weakness to sunlight and immortality come from?

If you were Homosexual in the Medieval age, what were your options? Did you just have to keep it secret forever and pretend to be straight? I can't imagine they were too accepting?

I know the Byzantine Empire heavily employed eunuchs across its administration and religion in high positions, yet towards the end of the Empire they were more and more marginalized and lost their influence. What caused this loss of power and how was it implemented?

I don't know if this kind of question is allowed here, I'm just not sure where else to ask it.Obviously I'm not from there, I'm from America. I've never heard an explanation for why or how wearing a white wig was/is a normal thing. I assume it's just a tradition now, but I was unaware until rather recently that it is still in use.

Edit: Why do they still do it to this very day

The uniform answer to this is always 'The Ottomans didn't record ethnicities, but based their segregations on religion.' Which may be true, but surely everyday citizens didn't base their own ideas of themselves on what a government document stated?

So were there any ethnically Greek Muslim communities, by this I mean Ottoman citizens who would be Greek-speaking as a mother tongue but still Muslim?

I think a lot of people believe the myth that the pyramids were built buy aliens, becasue they cannot fathom ancient civilizations being capable of such achievements without modern technology. I think the reason for this is that, for one, they do not understand that "Ancient technology" is basically just less refined, or analog modern technology, and secondly, while people understand that "many slaves" worked in the construction, I think people don't realize just how many of them there were. What is a rough estimate of the amount of slaves used in the construction of a single egyptian pyramid?