When Romans had large battles say against the Britton's, were the Roman dead stripped of say their armour and weapons for future use for new recruits?

So during the United States Revolutionary War, one of the things (in my limited, layperson understanding of that time in history) that stood out was how the Minutemen and otherwise fought, compared to the British. The British had the concept of "gentlemanly warfare" where certain rules were observed, such as each side "taking turns" to shoot. Each army presenting themselves on the field before the fighting started, etc.

While we all know that this failed the British in many different battles and even wars throughout history, I believe the Minutemen and others who fought to free America were unique at that time because the Minutemen and other fighters weren't specifically considered savages by the British, and they expected them to therefore follow their rules of battle.

Today with the advent of robotics, technology, and determination, we have seen at least one new front open up (Cyberwarfare), and the other fronts (physical, i.e. air, land, sea) change dramatically. Even countries that many might consider backwards and highly underdeveloped have poured millions into robotics, into drones, and especially into cyberwarfare.

This made me think. Since the time of the Revolutionary war (in the US), have there been calls to return to a form of "gentlemanly warfare" such as the British used to use? Or to use other competitions, or create wargames that would settle things wars typically do?

If so, what amount of seriousness/weight did these proposals have? Heads of state, or at least those who worked in the government? Or just people who write articles or give speeches tossing the idea out there? Has anybody given significant thought into this in the past century or so?

It's my understanding that British shipping was significantly harried by German submarines during WWI. With this in mind, it seems logical that the British would attempt to close this gap, either through advancements in technology or doctrine. However, it seems as though they were utterly unprepared for WWII and again were losing tons of merchant ships to submarines. Has the impact of submarines on British shipping been overblown? Were there significant advancements on the British side but they merely lost the arms race? Or were they simply stagnant and unprepared for another global war?

Ofcourse there were lower classes of people in Europe too, there were prisoners, etc. Then why only Africans and black people? Was this due to color differences and thus racism? Or due to advanced warfare of Europe which could threaten Africans to work for them?

It is well known that the mongols were extremely efficient and powerful when they fought but how could they be so efficient? and why was their tactics so efficient? I would think they only fought against calvary against other nomads before unifying so I was wondering how they become so efficient to defeat middle ages armies when they weren't that advance or really that educated against foreign armies

I'm working on a Roman Britain short story that focuses on a Briton slave hired as a sort of in-house nanny and servant for the family. The husband is often away on business (an engineer for the Wall) so her interactions are mainly with the lady of the house.

In this case, how would she address her and the child? Any guidance appreciated!

It seems like millions of Spaniards or Portuguese emigrated to their colonies in the Americas, during and after colonization. Similarly, British America was much more populated than New France, and even after that a lot of people from Britain and Ireland emigrated there. There are also a lot of heavily populated former British colonies (Canada, Australia, etc.). On the other hand, lots of Italians, Germans, Jews emigrated to North America, South America or even Australia.

In none of those cases (be it in colonies, or after that in the republics of the New World) there seems to have been a large French emigration.

The only exception I can think of is Algeria, where there was some 1.3million pieds noirs, but that is not a lot (and a substantial share of them were of Spanish or Italian descent anyway).

Why did the French not emigrate in large numbers to their colonies or the New World, like other European countries did?

Hi, hope you are all doing well during these dire times.

I'm a History undergraduate in University of Bologna and I want to focus my studies on Communes in Italy (XII-XIV century). It is my first question, I hope I meet the conditions of r/AskHistorians.

I'm currently reading Kantorowicz's Frederick the Second, Italian edition published by Garzanti. In the fifth chapter (p. 279) it is said that the "Ghibelline mindset" was characterized by citations of Classics rather than the Bible.

What I'm looking for is a list of Classics known in Frederick's court during the creation of the Sicilian State and his reign, possibly with the name/classification of the various editions/translations: I do not want to step into Renaissance Era translations/editions, because they may be interpreted in ways someone of three centuries earlier would not even imagine.

I am aware of the fact that the Frederick's Court in Sicily spoke a more refined and classical latin, with Pier delle Vigne beign talked by Kantorowicz like an early Petrarca so if you have any information regarding any "court editions" of the Classics I would be really glad to go through them.

Thank you very much for your attention/interest/advices, I wish you the best!

When reading about the history of Buddhism in South Asia, the consensus is that by the time of the Muslim invasions of India (second millenium), it was already on its last legs. The Muslim invasions only helped to accelerate its decline, and the remaining Buddhists would be absorbed into the larger cultural sphere of Hinduism.

However, I have also read that during the first millenium, South India was also a thriving place for Buddhist culture. The famed monk Bodhidharma, who is said to have taught Zen Buddhism to the Chinese as well as Martial Arts in Shaolin Temple, was thought to be a Tamil Prince.

My question is, why did the Tamils eventually forget/absorb Buddhism into their Hindu Tamil practices while the neighbouring Sinhalese mostly remained Buddhist? There are Tamil communities in northern Sri Lanka, yet there are almost no Tamil Buddhists. Buddhism also virtually disappeared from Tamil lands in the Mainland South Asia. Is the Hindu vs Buddhist contrast being used by both communities as a weapon of ethnic differentiation?

Egypt including the pyramids was a province of the Roman Empire for centuries. Our modern understanding is that during Octavian’s reign, the major pyramids were around 2600 years old. Did the Romans know this, or did they have their own incorrect theory for how old they were?

Cleary the history of wine production predates that of refrigeration, as such, where does the trend for drinking wines, like white and sparkling, cold come from? Or was wine predominantly red in early years until things like ice houses were more common place in the upper echelons of society?

Greetings and I have a question as the title says since I am interested into war history and about Axis forces it was interesting to see them have small ally. As for that I've heard that Germans were taking away their soldiers to eastern front and were taking away their resources and their army was called Ustashe. What happened with Croatia after WW2 ended and was it punished by Allied forces or something else happened? What happened with church in Croatia when Germans arrived? Thanks for answering!

I recently saw this in Red Dead Redemption 2, which is set in the early 20th century when the device is seen in a bank.

I’ve also seen something similar in the old Davy Crockett movie set in the early 1800s.

I believe I’ve seen it in other westerns, but none I could name off the top of my head.

I’m just very curious and I’ve had no luck googling this topic. It’s kinda hard to google “thingy from westerns help”.

These days I'm watching James Bond's movies and now I have a few questions about the secret services.

Why was the first secret service created? When and where?

Did other countries create theirs in order to do counterintelligence? If so, how did they know about the other secret agencies?

So I recently read a book where it says that before 1492 portuguese sailors sometimes found "strange corpses" and oddly carved pieces of wood from the west, implying some kind of evidence of a populated contintent west of Europe. How real are these claims? How were these discoveries treated?

I have this question that dawned on me a few weeks ago and I have been searching ever since. The question is about the wounds of Ceasar. The location and the assassination itself is more or less widely known and there are numerous writings about it. What I can't find are the locations of the stab wounds. A "body map" of some sort. As I understand some of the wound locations are widely talked about (f.e. the would that apparently was fatal when the dagger struck under his breast). I guess im asking are the locations of the cuts known, and if so - where were they made.

Hello, I have a question and if this is not allowed just let me know. My grandfather's uncle served in the Army in World War 2. He was in the 318th Infantry 80th Division. I'm not sure if he was killed in action on February 7, 1945 or on January 13, 1945. He was in battle in January. I was reading about him and he was awarded a Silver Star and Purple Heart for a battle that occurred on January 13, 1945 in Luxembourg. Would he have been in the Battle of the Bulge? I'm trying to learn more about him and keep his memory alive. He died so young. It says that he was buried in Hamm, Luxembourg on February 7.

Basically the title. I understand that, in many areas, what country people identify with changes over time, and some don't lose their older identity. For instance, there are many people in the former Yugoslavia who still identify as Yugoslav, Greeks also identified as Romans for millennia. I know that this is a touchy subject, but the Ottomans ruled over the Balkans for over 400 years, did the Christian peoples ever see themselves as part of it, or just occupied? Like did they ever see themselves as Ottomans if they ever went abroad?

Did the change have a practical reason or was it just to keep up with changing fashion trends?

Been on a binge of WW2 books such as With The Old Breed, Helmet for My Pillow, No Surrender, and The Forgotten Soldier.

Does anyone know any good examples from the Soviet side?