I've been trying to get a grasp on this topic and am finding it difficult. I'm hoping someone can simplify it for me. After the French Revolution in 1789, it's my understanding that the monarchy was overthrown and nobles were executed by the thousands. Then noble titles are reintroduced by Napolean in 1808 and remain in use until the revolution in 1848. Then they're restored again in 1852.

My question comes in a couple of parts. Overall I'd like to know how accurate my very generalized understanding above is. As for the nobles, why were they brought back? Were these just random people given titles or were they the existing bloodlines that survived the Reign of Terror? Were nobles affected by the July revolution in 1830? What was life like for a French noble in this time, especially right before the revolution of 1848, and what happened to them after? How did the common people feel about getting rid of monarchs and nobles just to get them back so many times?

I hope I don't sound too ill-informed, but that's why I'm asking. Thanks in advance to anyone who will educate me on this topic!

Did she actually work for free or is it a rumor that became "fact"? If she worked for no pay, how come? Or was it a way to disguise a poly lesbian relationship?

I was reading about the Elmyians who identified as descendants of the Trojans who were granted special nontaxed status by Rome, as they both considered themselves descendants of the Trojans. I’ve only read maybe 1/5th of the Iliad at this point and of course have seen Troy so maybe my view is skewed by how they painted the character’s morality.

I know there are many others at the time who also considered themselves Trojan Descendants, why do I feel like I hear this more often than taking pride in being descendants of the Mycenaeans or one of the major cities that comprised that army?

Apparently I heard that George Washington still had a British accent because at the time, the American accent still haven't fully evolved. Later I heard that British accent was the one that evolved and the Brits sounded like modern day Americans.

I'd like to know if there were dedicated places for horses to rest inside or around cities, and how theft prevention and caretaking was dealt with in regards to horses. How would a lone rider ensure the safety of their horse overnight, and when inside buildings? And how would travelling as a group change the arrangements made to ensure such things?

Also, would a lone traveller have a go-to, expected spot to rest and reclaim his horse in a city they didn't know, and just arrived at?

I would also like to know if such practices differed a lot around different regions of the world?

Thank you

The Goths invaded the weakened WRE state and took over Italy, Iberia and Southern France, but how did it affect Latin culture and the continent before the Byzantine, Frankish and Islamic expansions?

Nowadays we can look back and analyze the failings of these designs (and the processes used to design, test, and procure them) with a relatively omniscient point of view.

But during the early years of US involvement in WWII, before improved torpedo designs came about, how much did the average American civilian, or even the average American serviceman, know about these torpedos and how deficient they were?

Hi guys! Amateur historian here - I was in the process of reading on Hitler’s rise to power in Nazi Germany when I learnt of the Night of the Long Knives. Almost every account I’ve read of TNotLK seems to agree that it was one of if not the most significant of factors leading to Hitler’s rise to power. However, it seems to me that there HAS to be some way that TNotLK can’t have been as heavily significant as 90% of historians seem to believe. What about the Catholic Church? Surely there must have still been some figures in the army who opposed Hitler after the Army Oath! What ways could TNotLK have actually been less significant than generally accepted? And what do you personally think of the significance of this event?

I'm just wondering what the history of that conflict was and how it compared to that of the US

From mining the Uranium to storing the bomb.

I was wondering, was William B. Travis’ distress letter from the Alamo ever recieved by Sam Houston?

1. Why are the Jews hated so much?

2. Is this worldwide or only western cultures?

3. When did this start? Were the Jews hated when Jesus was cruising around? Or, did that happen later?

Beginning a speech or paper using a dictionary definition has become such a cliché that it is often comically used as an example of bad writing or bad public speaking. However, I can imagine that it may have been used in sincerity the first couple of times, and even may have been thought of as a unique and creative way to start a speech. Is there a clear origin of when and where this phrase started?

Sources would be greatly appreciated.

I watched a documentary from the BBC about the dissolution of Yugoslavia and my impression from it is that reports of abuse of ethnic Serbs in Kosovo and in other parts of Yugoslavia were a significant contributor to the rise of tensions and may have been exaggerated by the media and by Serb nationalists. Were Serbs the victims of persecution by other ethnic groups in areas that they were the minority? If yes, was this persecution exaggerated to serve a Serbian nationalist agenda?

I asked this before on r/history but maybe its a bit too specific:

Throughout the Roman imperial history, Germanic tribes often acted as dangerous enemies. Even if writers like Tacitus tend sometimes to prop up individual abilities of Germanic warriors, undoubtedly in the conflicts against German tribes the Romans suffered some heavy blows - from the Cimbric/Teutonic invasion (won't touch the discussion if some of them were maybe celtic here) to the Battle of Varus. They proved even able at times to take cities or fortresses, like, for example, in 354 A.D. were Alamanni conquered shortly a stretch of the Rhine. Still, undoubtedly the favor of having the stronger army, lay on the side of the Romans. So if we assume there was assymetric warfare going on a lot in these conflicts, for example, if Arminius faces in the Varus battle about 20 000 roman soldiers, we can assume he has the same numbers, likely a lot more. Now the problem: where did all those Germans live and come from? Within large parts of Germany pre-300 A.D. germanic relics are notoriously sparse. Also, before the 4th century they seemingly didn't maintain fortifications and any larger structures. We do know some well excavated Germanic villages like Feddersen Wierde, Geismar, Niederweimar and so on. With the exception of the maybe pre-Germanic settlement Biskupin (Poland), which existed in late bronze age, all these were small. Geismar excavations pointed to 230 buildings (which didn't exist at the same time, but over a span of a millenium), the others have less. There are some large cemetaries from the late antiquity with like 1000 graves, but developed also over a long time. So we can assume, even "big" germanic sites had populations in the lower hundreds. Now, you can say, these places haven't simply found yet. But, in comparison, we know a lot of celtic city-like places and they fit how they are described in the historical sources. So, how made all this Germanic tribes the numbers to duke it out with roman armies? Is there any historian/archaelogist that addresses the problem? Or am I wrong and there are large archaeological sites of German origin? I admit that I don't know whats going on with research on German tribes in countries like Poland or Ukraine or where they else lived.

To phrase it better: when it comes to modern day borders, I can see that most Native American civilizations (Mayan, Inca, Toltec) were all below the southern U.S border. The only ancient civilization I can think of that wasn’t were the Mississippi.

When the Europeans arrived, there were to native civilizations (that I’m aware of), the Aztec and Inca, both of which were in not in the borders of the modern day U.S or Canada.

If I’m still not being clear, what I’m trying to say is that there are virtually zero remnants of any ancient civilizations in either U.S or Canada. They’re all in Latin America (that being Mexico, Brazil, Paraguay, Venezuela, etc.), why is that?

Perfect muscles with a perfect 8 pack with a body armor to match? Or were some on the heavy side or on the skinny side? Where can we find proof of this?

I'm a sex-repulsed young woman with a decent social circle and I figured out I didn't feel attraction towards anyone or any desire for sex a while ago. I'm keeping it to myself for now since the prevalence of free-love culture in my age group (late teens to early twenties) is normal to most but overwhelming and disturbing to me. I don't trust authority (doctors, therapists) but many of my friends are of the artsy variety, and I feel I may be able to trust them with this information. (If memory of previous attempts to find answers serves me) I don't even have a name for this or know if it's permanent. The only person who knows is my best friend; he doesn't understand it any more than I do and his questions can get frustrating but he's supportive and keeps it between us.

Who can help me understand what I'm feeling and why? Is there any information out there, in books or from specific teachers I can seek out? And what's the general response I should expect if I tell my friends?