I know it originates within Greek religion being C/Kharon's payment, but how did that end up in the different forms of Christian religion?

I'm not exactly well versed in the teachings of Christianity, so I dont know if it is explained within the book, or if its cultural or not.

Thank you!

After the War of the Sixth Coalition, why didn't the Allies annex France instead of handing it back to the Bourbons?

So I'm in the market for a new boat, and I've always been curious about the way the Norse, or Vikings, named their ships, what the ceremony consisted of, what offerings were made to what gods, and how they chose the names. Thank you in advance.

When looking at a formula sheet, one can see that there's been some effort to distinguish between different things being represented by using pretty much all of the letters from the latin and greek alphabets. But there's also a lot of doubling up. Why didn't physicists keep going to Hebrew letters?

Particularly in England and France during the Hundred Years War

But also by the Mongols and the Yuan, and the Majapahit Empire (which i just found out about on wikipedia :) )

I can’t find this simple answer nowhere...

Two of my all time favorite things are combat medics and civil war history. I know both sides had medical staff, surgery professionals and makeshift hospitals to treat the injured, but was there anyone who was expected to protect and remove the injured during a battle? If so did they have any special tile or markings? Or was this procedure handled simply by any soldiers who found themselves in a position where this was necessary, combined with a general respect for injured men on both sides?

Slavery and peasantry is essentially abolished in the modern world, but from a political and economic point of view, what did that actually accomplish? Did a peasant living in rural Russia circa 1700 enjoy higher living standards than a slave on the Caribbean plantations at the same time? Did they have more political rights? Did they even understand the difference between each other? And what about ‘wage slaves’ from Gilded Age America and elsewhere? What made them different from peasants or real slaves?

I was reading an 1808 document from Mexico and it cites someone's birthplace as 34 latitude, 265 longitude. I had a feeling the person was born somewhere in the area of West Texas/ New Mexico, so the 34 latitude fits. The 265 on the other hand doesn't make sense considering the modern longitude system doesn't go above 180. Is there any chance the author is using an outdated system I'm unfamiliar with? If so, how does it work and what location is the document referring to?

My degree is in early medieval archaeology, so I came across a lot of scholarly research on the political organisation of Anglo-Saxon communities, and a lack of such on the British and Gaelic communities of Western Britain. What there is of western Britain seems to be on kingship, but what of law, land management, administration (which we know in an ecclesiastical capacity), church.

We know Anglo-Saxon and British/Gaelic kingship was not dissimilar, my question is therefore, was there a Brythonic or Goidelic version of the witan, the moot or the witenagemot?

I came across an old roman city called Djamila, which is all ruins now. Why is it all ruins? Why did people abandon the city, why was it not taken care of? Why are there many ruins in rome, why haven't they been taken care of for the past couple thousand years? I know there are also very old places that are still fine, but why are some old places in such poor shape. What caused people to completley abandon or stop caring about them?

Today I heard a few people discussing on metro how the economic pushback Britain got due to world war 2 as well as the redistribution of troops and officers which were serving in the colonies to wars made controlling India from Britain amidst the civil disobedience movements which became active during that time hastened the process of Independence and hence without Hitler, it would've taken 20-30 years more for commonwealth colonies to gain Independence.

Suits and ties haven’t always been around. And today’s professionalism standards in business had to start somewhere. How did it all begin?

[deleted]

So, people believed that the sun revolved around the Earth until after the Copernican revolution, but we had also known that a year was 365.25 long days since Classical Antiquity, so what did people believe a year was before Copernicus? It couldn't just have been "one orbit around the sun" because nobody believed the Earth revolved around the sun. Was it simply the idea that a 'year' was one full cycle of the seasons?

To preface, sorry for the awkward title.

To reiterate, I know that North America wasn't the only place with people riding out into the plains and rounding up cattle, and that Argentina had the gauchos on the pampas, but presumably these weren't the only places in the world with major beef industries at the time. While it appears that most of Europe was too small to support the kind of cattle ranching used in the Americas, there were presumably other large regions capable of ranching.

Did other areas of the world, say, Australia or Africa (either from European colonizers or natives, though I'd be especially interested if the latter was true anywhere) use cowboys or cowboy-like workers for their cattle? If so, to what extent did their culture/subculture resemble their Western counterparts?

As an addendum, the trope of the American cowboy seems to have been at least somewhat well-known overseas in the late 1800s. Most (in)famously, the character of Quincey Morris in Dracula was a rough-and-tumble Texan who mentioned spending time in the pampas and carried a Bowie knife at all times. While this image clearly bears some differences to the realities of the actual American cowboy, it seems to indicate a spreading of this image to Europe.

Did the Americans hold a monopoly on this particular literary trope at the time, or were there other versions of the rough-and-tumble cowboy that made it to other nations in the pre-Western-genre-of-movie era? Did say, Spain enjoy tales of gauchos? Did the Brits also hear stories of Australian or Canadian cattle workers? Did other large producers of cattle have their own literature about the adventures of the people who rounded up their livestock?

Thanks in advance!

I saw a picture online that alluded to this, and it basically said that until the 50's and 60's, and even in the modern day in many other parts of the world, children continuing to live with their parents is common, up until they get married.

The picture basically stated that post-war America was taken over by a "rabid patriotism" during the McCarthy era, and that the financial expectations of the post-war generation have become antiquated.

Is the idea of American (and Western European) children living with their parents until marriage, even if they are educated and productive members of society, historically accurate, or is that a modern trope that millennials (of which I am one) tell themselves to try and ease the pain of their modern economic situation?

[deleted]