I noticed something interesting when watching a clip of the storming of Omaha Beach from the movie Saving Private Ryan. During the clip, three combat medics were frantically attempting to patch up a fellow wounded soldier in the middle of all the mayhem that was D-Day. What I noticed was that the three combat medics did not seem to pay any attention to the gunfire around them, and made no attempt to shield themselves from the frontlines of the German machine-guns. What I took from that was, either the medics were being very ballsy while trying to save their mate, or for some reason they knew that they did not have to worry so much about being targeted by the Germans. Now I know this is from a movie and the placement and behavior of the medics were probably directed for a certain cinematic effect, but this made me wonder if medical personnel were really treated differently compared to typical combat personnel when it comes to the use of deadly force. During WWII were there ever any written or unwritten agreements of non-lethality against military personnel who served a purely medical function and who presented no kind of threat to the enemy?
Edit: I've included the post that I found the clip from in case anyone was interested.
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Edit - I'm sticking to the typo.
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As the earliest extant works about Kievan Rus' The Primary Chronicle, Often attributed to St Nestor covers people who died long before he was born and his Chronicles are the only source which does. Rurik I is almost entirely based on these Chronicles.
How much can they trusted? if at all
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https://imgur.com/a/E7Kep4Q
Hello everyone,
I have a question about particular ring in the picture. I know for a fact (or rather was told so) that the inscription says Anulus (annulus) Svant, which makes perfect sense. However I really can't see it there. Could anyone help me to learn to read?
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Neither option is in any way, shape, or form ideal for a nation. But it seems like being completely conquered would be more humiliating then the terms the Japanese and Europeans forced on them. Was it do to the fact they were outsiders? Because they were white? Why?
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Something that I still remember from Patrick Wyman's Fall of Rome Podcast is him saying there was a time that he could read all the existing documents of a certain type from the Roman Empire. If I recall correctly, these were letters between correspondents. That got me wondering if any of you can read all of the documents relevant to your work in a reasonable amount of time.
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what is the earliest known documentation of atlantis?
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I'm mostly asking about how much did it cost to rent a room for a night. Like, is it a silver coin for a night or much more? I know, coins weren't all the same value, but I'm just asking about how much it would be. I'm writing a book, so I don't want to have a scene where characters pay a gold peice for something that costs a siver coin. Thanks.
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I recently finished reading a fictional story about Essex County, Massachusetts in which a detective discovers a modern day witch settlement that descends from the persecuted witches fleeing away from Salem. Now this is fiction but throughout history following the Salem Witch Trials is there evidence of other witch settlements around Massachusetts?
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I really want to deeply understand the Bretton Woods dissolution, central bank evolution in L20C (ideally in more than one country), capital flow control and why different govenments made different macro/monetary policy decisions during the L 20C period. I recently watched two documentaries 'The Spiders Web' and 'Princes of the Yen' about the history of UK offshore trust creation and Japanese lending controls in the 80s/90s/00s (as well as a bit about the ECB) - it taught me a bit about different kinds of central bank roles and I'd like to know more. Thanks!
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Alexander the Great and his father, Philip II, were Macedonian. So why is he considered Greek when it comes to all the stuff he conquered?
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As we know, Germany had a pact with the Soviet Union and they both invaded Poland in 1939. Britain and France then declared war on Germany but not on the Soviet Union. I know that Germany broke a promise they had with Chamberlain but Soviet Union invaded too, they killed too and they committed crimes too and Britain and France did not declare war.
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If they considered it, was Washington's example cited or did they decide not to run for other reasons? If Washington's tradition was considered so sacred already at that point, what changed that some later presidents were open to the idea?
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I'm currently studying Byzantine diplomacy and I came across this clause (as well as a number of others in other chrysobulls between Byzantium and Venice from the ninth-twelfth centuries) which either actually gift Venice churches in Byzantine territory, or lay out a framework by which new territory conquered by Byzantium with Venetian military aid would also provide Venice with a church (in the newly conquered area - specifically this is the 1187 chrysobull).
Any insight by the community on this would be very helpful to my research!
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