When reading about the Phoenicians and Carthgianians settling colonies, I am left wondering what this process actually looked like. We know they founded New Carthage in Spain, but what did this actually entail? Did waves of carthaginian men and women move there and breed to create a self sustaining population (e.g. British Australians and Americans), or would a carthaginian army simply conquer the area and rule over an exploited native population, kind of like British India or French Africa?

1758: Pittsburgh

1880: Pittsburg

1911: Pittsburgh

I live in Pittsburgh and the story going around social media today is that it's unofficially "H Day".

Apparently the government mandated in 1880 that all burgh cities drop the H for consistency purposes. And after 31 years of public outcry Pittsburgh got it's H back today in 1911.

So a few questions -

1. Was it really a big deal that some burgh cities had an h and others didn't?

2. Was this state or federal government that mandated the change? Who lead the charge on that (and why) and what were the arguments for and against?

3. Was Pittsburgh unique in getting it's H back? How did people in the city make that happen? Who did they have to appeal to and how were they so effective?

4. Why was having the H so important to Pittsburgh?

Apart from English Landscape Artists of the 18th/19th century, there isn't much British art. Why is this?

Western Europe, and a part where the Catholic Church would be the only church

Western poetry, philosophy, visual arts etc. all date back to Ancient Greece, but although music existed then, a continuous tradition only starts with Gregorian chant, roughly a thousand years later (and when I listen to the Seikilos song, I'm tempted to believe music wasn't as highly developed then as the other areas of culture). What is the reason for this?

I know that he was injured, but he spent more than a few years in exile. Surely he wasn't hurt badly enough that he needed that much time to recover?

I previously posted this in the thread for short questions but was informed that I should post it as a regular question.

In the age of pornography addiction, NoFap, #metoo, super strict conservative parenting, and so many high profile people having a shady sex life, I'm endlessly curious how all this was dealt with in generations past (basically pre-Playboy). I'm only 24 so I only shown how men are "basically doomed" to screw up in these areas at least once because of my strict upbringing. I want to know...are the men of my generation THAT much worse off in terms of sexual deviancy than previous generations?

Hello, I tried to do a basic level web search for this topic and quite literally nothing came up save one article that was probably two pages. And of course Google interprets the question as Vichy France. So how was life like in general for French civilians behind German trenches in WWI? How were the areas administers and how much freedom were they allowed? Were they forced to contribute to the German war effort? If so, how?

As China only wanted to trade with foreign powers in silver, which to my understanding also caused problems in relation to Spanish silver supply's weakening, what did the Chinese domestic market look like? How easy was the transport of goods, how was the status of merchants, and the importance of trade in the standing of cities and individuals?

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In reading an article about German plans to invade Switzerland, I came across the following:

“Switzerland possesses the most disgusting and miserable people and political system. The Swiss are the mortal enemies of the new Germany.” - Hitler

In August 1942, Hitler further described Switzerland as “a pimple on the face of Europe” and as a country that no longer had a right to exist. Moreover, he denounced the Swiss as “a misbegotten branch of our people.”

Why did Hitler have such contempt for the Swiss people?

During the occupation of Yugoslavia, Nazis renamed Belgrade to "Prinz Eugen Stadt". They also founded (in modern day Serbia) an SS division called "Prinz Eugen".

Naturally, I became interested who was that guy, but whenever I search his name, Google gives me results only for the SS division (also historians are more trustworthy than Google).

So, who was Prinz Eugen and was he in some easy connected to Balkan region?

Thanks in advance.

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In WW1 Italy was promised by the Entente powers large parts of Austria-Hungary land to the north of Italy and to the east across the Adriatic if they joinend their side. why was this not given to them at the treaty of versailles and instead given to Serbia?

Obviously, there was no mud/stone monster, but there was a series of events that stopped (at least temporarily) the persecution of Jews in Prague.

What actually happened?

The KPD famously refused to support the democratic candidate against Hindenburg, the so called 'Einheitsfront' (United front) with the left wing SPD, supported the 1931 Prussian Landtag referendum, etc.

In addition to that they seemed to have tried to get some of the Nazi voters back into their camp by using slogans like 'Beat down the Jewish-Capitalists, hang them from the lamp post, trample them.' ('Tretet die Juden-Kapitalisten nieder, hängt sie an die Laterne, zertrampelt sie.').

In retrospect this all seems pretty bad. Did this have any practical consequences or did the various party members ignore the party line and worked together anyways? Did later communist parties in Germany (Especially the SED, the ruling party in the GDR/DDR) express regret for that line? After all they were the union of the communists and social democrats, even if somewhat non-voluntary. How about Stalin, who seemed to have been (one of) the driving influence(s)?

And maybe lastly: How important was the hope that the Fascist dictatorship would lead to a 'true communist revolution' in creating this 'Social Fascism theory'? Did they (as in the party and international elite) plan to let the Nazis come to power only to topple them again?

My quotes come from the German Wikipedia Pages about the 'Kommunistische Partei Deutschlands' and 'Sozialfaschismusthese'. The horrendous translation is my own 'work' - I take all credit for any mistakes. If they are inaccurate, wrong or misrepresenting I would be really curious about that as well :)

In my (possibly very shallow) understanding of the history of the UK, Henry VIII broke from Rome and created the Church of England because he wanted to get rid of his marriage with Catherine of Aragon (and remarry), but couldn't get the Pope to agree. This being the entire basis for having a separate religion, one would think they would be more tolerant of divorce.

However I've been watching the Netflix series The Crown recently and it's abundantly clear that by the mid-20th century the Church was very opposed to divorce : divorced persons were not allowed to remarry in Church while their former spouse was alive, and this was apparently a major factor in preventing the marriage of Princess Margaret and Peter Townsend (not to mention the abdication of Edward VIII two decades earlier). The Church opposition was apparently doctrinal and not just plain old social conservatism.

So my question is, when did this happen, and was there any resistance against this (at any point) on the basis of the impetus for founding the Church of England?

Egypt used to not not an arabic country, it used to have its own culture and language, but over time Egyptians abandoned that and embraced the arabic identity, I just want to know if this is a result of policies put forwards by the abbasids and later by the mamluks

How long did it take for Europeans to realize that the land they had discovered across the Atlantic was in fact not India? Surely it couldnt have been that long, in which case why did the name "Indian" or "Red Indian" stick for so long?

It's kind of odd when you think about it.

By lifestyle I mean the food they ate, weapons, clothes, architecture, religion, upbringing, how they elected leaders etc. Was it similar to the medieval period?

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Also what was the population in these tribes? When they say tribes do they mean a couple thousand?