I’m somewhat familiar with the historical linguistics point of view (like Watkins’ How to Kill a Dragon), but I’m wondering whether this is just a fringe belief or something that the general population of historians would say “Yeah, that’s probably right.”

I am putting a project together where I have to include many Chicago style footnotes and other sourcing.

Instead, of doing all of these manually is there a citation generator that could accomplish this task efficiently and accurately?
Thank you in Advance!

Was it purely a political failure after Bismarck’s death and lack of leadership or was it affected by nationalism and identity of Germany that then gave rise to Nazism?

What led them to doing so?

Today, Ethiopia has 90 million compared to Eritrea's 6 million. It seems astounding that a tiny nation could resist one of the most populous in Africa. In 1991, how was this achieved? It looks like guerrilla operations were a key part of their success, but I know that's not the whole story.

I was just reading a Snopes article about this billboard in Florida reported by Tucker Carlson's news blog, the billboard reads "The perfect man" and then lists some supposed things he did like behead 600 jews in a day, marry a 6 year old, own slaves, and stuff like that; but Snopes is claiming that many of these things are more contested than I, a formally very edgy in your face atheist, might have once believed. The article claims that basically none of this stuff is written in the Koran and the rest is gather from dubious sources that wrote about him 200 years after he died.

So academically speaking, what all do we *really* know about Muhammad and what he did? If someone tells me that Muhammad tortured and killed non-believers like this billboard says how skeptical should I be of that claim?

I got thinking about this due to current world events and the worrying rise of national populism. I see history repeating itself to lesser extent but it's still worrying nonetheless. Wondered how long it took the majority of the German population to see the error of its ways and reverse its thinking?

I hope this isn't a stupid question.

To Add: I am also not entirely sure that all cowboys did originate in Europe, as I'm certain that there were people from all over the world coming to America and becoming "cowboys". I would also like to add that I am Canadian - so my perspective on Cowboys is what I watch/read/hear - that said - I do recognize that not EVERY American is a Cowboy - just that it seems that all "olden days" Cowboys are American.

(This was originally posted in r/history before I realized that this may be a better place to post this.

Which calendar is used for older dates (i.e. before the adoption of the Gregorian calendar) as referred to in modern history? For example, if in a history textbook mentions the date 27 January 535 AD, is it using the Julian or Gregorian calendar? What about the traditional date of the founding of Rome, 21 April 753 BC? In that case, does the date use the Julian or Gregorian calendar or some older calendar?

In medieval/early modern times, more specifically in the Tudor period, were castles generally open to the public? And would the nobles who occupied the castles leave regularly while the court was housed there or did they simply enter the castle and remain within the walls until the court moved to the next estate?

I write code for a living, and sometimes I deal with the abomination of a language that is Fortran. This language in my experience does not have "versions" the way any sane coding language would, at least not until we get into Fortran 90 and newer. Instead it has dialects, which seems to be a Devil's plot to confuse my compiler.

How did this come about?

I've always been under the impression that WW2 allied bomber crewmen were released after 25 missions. I've been watching Catch 22 (which I know, isn't exactly historical fiction) and they keep increasing the mission count on the men. I doubt they ever did anything as drastic as seen in the show happened, but I had to wonder if there was any basis for this practice in history?

Thanks!

Hi there! I keep running into the idea that we need to use violence against facists, particularly Nazis.

I wanted to know if there was any historical success of peaceful protests of facism from seizing power or if they already had power, from harming people?

I was just wondering if the ocean between Germany and Sweden had anything to do with the Nazis leaving Sweden alone (besides all the other stuff). Do anyone think the plan was to go through USSR-Finland-Sweden? From what i can tell they didnt have a great 'navy'. Sorry if i wasted anyones time with a stupid question, i am just curious

Caesar said “I have a General with no army to my east, and an army with no general to my west.” I understand why Pompey went to Greece, but Why didn’t some of the Pompeians go to North Africa or to the Iberian Peninsula? Weren’t there 35,000 Roman soldiers there?

To be brief, the reason I ask this question is that I was recently selected to become an Aviator in the U.S. Army. Aviators are required to have a more advanced knowledge of math (specifically algebra & trigonometry) compared to other branches of officers. It made me wonder how that could compare, given the similar navigational requirements of both air and sea.

Additionally, after reading books such as the Horatio Hornblower series, I recall situations in which Captain Hornblower would calculate the displacement of forces along a sail, among other calculations. Having a degree in Physics, I am confident that Hornblower would have needed some knowledge of Integral Calculus to solve that example. He would have been quite the math prodigy to have learned Calculus before becoming a Midshipman at the age of seventeen.

Were Royal Naval officers really required to have that high level of math, or was that just another example of historical fiction/inaccuracy?

I have discovered this pattern. George HW Bush, George C Wallace, John McCain etc. Why? Is it just a coincidence.