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Up until the middle ages the history of the British Isles is littered with different groups migrating and settling the land despite people already living there; the angles, the saxons, vikings and so on. I recently read that Caesar's conquest of Gaul began with the migration of the Helvetii tribe across Gaul. This was described as a planned mass migration involving burning their original villages and moving hundreds of thousands of people to settle further across Gaul. Given the population has grown continuously since in the same land mass, what was the driving force behind all these mass migrations of people?

Did the Americans in the pacific not also waged unrestricted submarine warfare against the japanese after the attack on Pearl Harbour? Wouldn't that also make them war criminals as much as Raeder or Dönitz?

Zoroastrianism was an Iranian religion, established several centuries before Christianity. Some of Zoroastrianism's religious elements are similar to Christianity. For example the battle between the good and evil and the return of a ''Messiah.'' Some historians believe it made the fundament for Christianity in the Roman Empire.

Was Zoroastrianism the source for Christianity?

During the Napoleonic era, are there any accounts of grenadiers dropping their grenades before throwing them or their Grenades colliding with each other when thrown? How would this sort of error be avoided when fighting in formation?

Based on moderator comments, specifically how does the history of the commune compare to other historical examples?

Stephen Hawking in his book A Brief History Of Time mentions "... idea was elaborated by Ptolemy in the second century AD into a complete cosmological model. The earth stood at the centre, surrounded by eight spheres that carried the moon, the sun, the stars and the five planets known at the time, Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter and Saturn. "

Ptolemy was born in 100 AD while it is believed that telescopes were invented after 1600. Stars could be seen but not planets. How was he able to know that there are five planets?

Disclaimer: I asked this like half a year ago but did not recieve a suffcient answer to my liking yet, so I am trying it again.

This seems to be a constant phenomenon across all armies from the Napoleonic Wars onwards to WW2 and even up until today.

You have things like the 1st, 5th and 38th Army when there are no numbers inbetween, then you have the 2nd and 6th tank division with the 23rd panzer battalion and 347th infantry brigade.

For a better example, just look up the current German OOB for example. Or the OOBs of the armies in WW2. Or the Cold War. Or... you see what I mean.

I understand that when you shuffle units around you will get a 36th infantry division under the 6th army with the 3rd battalion. But what I am talking about is that there is a 6th army when there isnt even a 5th army. For an example of how I would do it:

1. Army
2. Infantry Division 1. Infantry Battalion 1. Artillery Battery
3. Infantry Division
4. Tank Division
5. Army
6. Infantry Division
7. Tank Division

I hope I could make it clear what I am referring to.

From what I understand, German generals of WWII who weren't found guilty of war crimes or killed themselves mostly lived quiet lives in retirement. But some of them like Von Manstein and Müller helped in the creation of the post war armies. How important was their contribution ? Were ex-SS allowed to join ? Thank you.

The title says it all. I'm an airsofter and this gear is important to me. I may use it for reenactments, I may not. I'm looking to re-create an average Joe's loadout, while being slightly more oriented toward heavier gear (backpacks and ammo capacity etc), moderate mobility kinda stuff. I'm all about repro and accuracy for the most part.

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I'm having a hard time finding specific links to what kind of gear the U.S. wore in WW2 in the Pacific Campaign. Help a fella out?

Please link me so repro gear so I can finally know exactly what I need.

It seems so obvious to us now but did this ever happen? If this didn't happen was it not done out of a sense of honor or could they just not fathom this style of warfare? Why give the enemy a fence to shoot at when you could just give them a line of pumpkins? Lie down and get shot in the head (most likely instant death) or stand up and risk a shot in the abdomen or legs. I've been watching Ken Burns 'Civll War' and I just can't fathom why they would grind away the way did for years especially after seeing the effects of their tactics.

Thank you.

Both Scheer and Jellicoe arranged for their enemy's fleet to pass through a picket line of submarines, and come under torpedo attack - a technique that, intuitively, could well have changed the tactical outcome of the battle, though maybe not the strategic one. But all the submarines missed their targets, and the sinkings were done the old-fashioned way, with shells and magazine explosions. What factors led to this failure? Was the technology just not ready, or were there failures of intelligence or command?

I've been reading the book "The History of Languages: An Introduction" by Tore Janson, and there it is stated that Ancient Egyptians used the same hieroglyphics for thousands of years without changing it. By the time it became very hard to be a clerk in Ancient Egypt because the old hieroglyphics was far different from the current language.

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The author even states that "It must've been as hard as a modern researcher to learn hieroglyphics for the late clerks."

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So the question popped into my mind, why haven't they done a "Hieroglyphic Reform" or something like that, was this that hard back then?

First let me admit that this is mostly based on comparing modern times to movies, tv shows, novels, etc from the 1940s & 50s; as well some rudimentary knowledge of Los Angeles history of that era. (If you’re looking for a good story go look into Harry Raymond. Private eye who survived the bombing of his car by an LAPD police detective) For all I know there could be more people employed as private detectives then ever before. But it certainly seems like the job is far less in the public eye then it was in the past. Might the rise of no fault divorce have anything to do with it? If you can just leave your cheating spouse there’s no need to hire someone to get evidence for a judge.

mainly did they help them in battle?

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EDIT: I mean the Baltics sorry

I recently inherited a painting that is signed what appears to be “Piatnik”. The picture itself is a winter landscape around dusk with I believe a ranch house or barn in it. Nothing special really pops out to me about the painting but I had never heard of Piatnik? So after some research I found that there is a Piatnik company that makes playing cards and puzzles. But this is an actual painting. Is there any relation to the company? If so why would they have an actual painting as I cannot find any other Piatniks that may have been actual painters or that the company did paintings as well? Sorry, I know very little about art in general and have hit a wall trying to research this. Thanks for any info or assistance!

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When I go to museums I'll spend most of the time looking at the middle ages and pre Renaissance, but it got me thinking, would an average person even know that these paintings exist? Is there any situation where they might have seen an oil painting on canvas?