So, I just watched this video and it made me wonder, why did the Americans build so many destroyers in WW2?
I mean, I'm surprised that the Imperial Japanese navy didn't build more cruisers, but still. That was an obscene number of destroyers against a force that had a relatively low number of battleships.
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Today:
You know the drill: this is the thread for all your history-related outpourings that are not necessarily questions. Minor questions that you feel don't need or merit their own threads are welcome too. Discovered a great new book, documentary, article or blog? Has your Ph.D. application been successful? Have you made an archaeological discovery in your back yard? Did you find an anecdote about the Doge of Venice telling a joke to Michel Foucault? Tell us all about it.
As usual, moderation in this thread will be relatively non-existent -- jokes, anecdotes and light-hearted banter are welcome.
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The Jutes (of Angles, Saxons and Jutes fame) are always mentioned as having come and settled/invaded Britain at the same time but very quickly all mention of them stops. Did they integrate with the Saxons and Angles to the point where they were no longer distinct as a people?
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I picked the 10.000 number just as an example, answers with different pop. sizes like 5.000 or 40.000 are all welcome.
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I guess this is two questions, one on why it happened and secondly on if it was specific to people like Custer or more general to officers in this time.
Reading his wiki entry (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_Armstrong_Custer) I am struck by how odd it seems that he goes from graduation to a Brigadier General (an OF-7 rank), then raised to Major General (OF-8) before returning to just Captain after the war of OF-2. I realise there is a difference in Brevetted ranks and normal ones and these officers were not 'actual' generals. But surely having so many high level ranks thrown around in titles caused confusion? What would be the effect if a genuine Major tried to order around Captain 'Major General' Custer? Would he have grounds to refuse or could there be battlefield problems if half the officers on the front line are being referred to as General.
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There's a lot of material on post 18th century winter warfare and it's generally well understood, but I seem to find almost nothing on winter warfare before the 8th century. How were peope equipped for winter campaigns during Ancient History? I especially think of European civilisations like Rome or Greece that left the comfort of the Mediterranean climate, how did they deal with winter? How did they adapt to it? Did they simply just sit out winter instead of battling against it?
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It seems USSR had quite an advanced and powerful army prior to WWII and this purge led him to being underprepared for the Nazi invasion/operation barbarossa.
Did he fear opposition in its ranks?
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Asking because theres a lot of videos on youtube about this, but most of them are on channels that i consider full of conspiracy BS, but this specific theory seems kinda believable to me, so wanted to ask some people who know stuff.
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Basically, was any early modern European fantastical folklore possibly influenced by dreams that individuals had or parasomnias (sleep walking, sleep paralysis, etc.) they experienced? And were their dreams also influenced by the folkloric/religious milieu in which they lived?
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Both of my grandfathers (as well as two great uncles) served in World War II, and when I was young I would ask some general questions and get general answers. They're no longer around, unfortunately, but the more I learn about World War II the more questions I would have had for them. I remember a little about where they served and a few stories they had, but I'd really love to find deployment records for them.
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I'm aware of the background which lead to the discovery of the Americas/Other places and that it was preceded by centuries of several tries, before the Portuguese and Castillians, there was the Italians who developped several of the tools ( ex : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Portolan_chart ) , techniques and methods of colonization/navigation in general over a long period of time during the Middle ages which made Christopher Columbus and the other explorers possible in the first place. So it did not come out of nowhere.
My question is : Was it necessary that Europeans discover these first ? Weren't the Muslim Berber dynasties (And Islamic in general) of Iberia and North/West Africa doing these types of discoveries themselves for example ?
Were the Western Europeans really the only ones exploring ?
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When World War II ended and nazis were being prosecuted by courts for war crimes, how did the courts respond to the Nuremberg defence? I have no experience with law or criminal prosecution so it seems that such a defence as ‘I was ordered to, and could not defy my orders at risk of death/imprisonment’ seems to be pretty watertight. From what I’ve read it seems most courts simply ignored this defence, but that doesn’t seem very judicial so I’m not really sure.
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