Let's say I'm an avid traveler and I want to walk from Toledo to Prague in the year 1300. Modern maps show clear borders between Castille, France, the Holy Roman Empire etc., but would there be anything to mark that? Will I have to identify myself at custom stops and guard posts along the road, or would that only happen if I try to enter a city?
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Like in a memoir? Does he ever reflect about his legacy as the first and only (knock on wood) leader to use nuclear bombs on enemies?
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I collect pinback buttons, antique tobacco are my favorite but I have a lot of vintage as well. That has led me to 7 interesting pieces from "Brothers of the Brush." I have a "shaving permit from Hudson, S.D. Centennial in 1961; "Diamond Jubilee" from Boyden, Iowa, 1964; Erie, Illinois Centennial from 1972; a "Shaver Permit" and "Brother of the Brush" Huron Centennial, 1980; Appleton Wis. Centennial, no date; and a "Brothers of the Brush" 1979, no city. The 1979 button says, "Unity Through Discovery, 300 Year Anniversary, 1679-1979," over the Fleur-de-lis. Is this organization really (in 7 years) 350 years old? I've found bits and pieces about it, just nothing about the history or origins. Does anyone have any information they can contribute or point me in the right direction?
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I’m watching The Last Kingdom on Netflix, and I can’t help but notice that the crown that King Alfred wears appears to have a fleur de lis on it. Is this just an oversight concerning historical fact, or was their some truth to this?
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I'm curious specifically about the Cree people of Alberta and Saskatchewan pre-colonization.
Indigenous groups in Arctic regions of Canada famously use igloos, seal skin clothing etc., to survive the frigid temps, but the Prairies can often get just as cold and to my knowledge those items aren't a part of traditional Cree life-- so how did they survive?
Edited my post after the mods pointed out my original wording could be construed to mean Cree people no longer live in Western Canada-- apologies for any confusion!
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Considering how far they got to places such as England, how did the Romans justify their imperial conquest? As a bonus, what actually drove the expansion? Was it simply due to the prospect of new markets/economy?
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Did they just put up with it? Like in medieval times when they only bathed few times a year.
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There are many works of fiction which include "rags to riches" tales of members of the lower classes joining the ranks the nobility. Real-world historical precedents seem to be much more difficult to find.
I'm searching specifically for examples of ennoblement in High Middle Ages to Late Middle Ages Europe, from roughly the 10th century to the 15th century CE, wherein a member of the lower classes was elevated to noble rank. If the noble rank included a landed title, all the more impressive.
For my purposes, I am excluding advancing as a clergyman or purchasing letters of patent in later centuries, perhaps the two most common forms of social mobility up to a certain level. In particular, I am looking for instances where ennoblement came through outstanding military success.
From my preliminary research, this appears to have been much more likely earlier in the period before feudal structures and traditions became more firmly entrenched, and during times of great strife, such as the Hundred Years War, though even then I suspect that royal patronage would have been necessary. Though I had expected this form of social mobility to be rare, I've been surprised that I've been unable to find a single concrete example.
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Also, despite being the largest opposition party, it seems like in most elections they would mostly gain around 20-25% of seats in Japan's national diet. Is there a reason why they were never able to gain the plurality of seats throughout their existence?
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I wonder, how is it that, despite Persia’s massiveness in terms of size, we have so little original writing from the Persian empire before the hellenistic period (and still less than others afterwards). I personally only know of Avesta as an intact work of literature; what happened to the rest of the mythologies and stories they must’ve championed?
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I've been reading recently about the wars in India that lead to the British East India Company taking over India in the 18th/19th centuries. I've noticed that it's quite common then to both refer each other to the judgement of the Almighty. Of course, this sounds like something either would say to anyone*, but it is peculiar in these situations, given that they believe in a lot of the same things, and iirc, believe in the same God. In practice, I'm wondering if Christians and Muslims viewed each other as sharing something which they did not with other religions (with exception to Judaism)? In more crude terms, was there a sense that the other (Christian to Muslim, Muslim to Christian) was "less of a pagan" than a member of some other religion? That they were worshipping the same God, just "wrong"?
*Edit: At least for "spreading faith by the sword" kind of evangelicals of either faith
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The inspiration for this questions comes from the Youtube video: No, the Treaty of Versaillies did NOT lead to hyperinflation OR the Nazis ( https://youtu.be/dR-4RTSJ_yo )
The basic premise of the video is that the allies did not want to destabilize Germany fearing revolution and so on. Therefore they made it look like Germany was being punished (to please the public who wanted Germany to pay for the damages of the war) while prioritizing making the financial burden amenable. He lays this out in detail starting @ 8:59 Timestamp
Putting "TIK's" somewhat amusing hate boner for Keynes aside is he right about the financial burden actually being significantly exaggerated by many historical sources?
I was taught in School that Germany could not pay the reparations imposed by the Versailles treaty leading to hyper inflations which the NAZI's took advantage of to promote their ideology and eventually take power.
Is "TIK" right in saying this retelling of events is wrong?
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Did they have theater, sports, games, stories, dances, concerts, carnivals?
Has any of this survived, or anything like it?
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To clarify, by Ancient World, I don’t refer to any single region but the entire ancient world. Ancient China, Rome, Egypt, America, Australia, all of it.
What prompted this was Plato’s homophobia. Early in his life, he praised homosexual relationships, but later he would describe them as unnatural and comparable to incest. Since Ancient Greece is considered a bastion of homosexuality this surprised me a lot. It got me thinking, what exactly was homophobia like in the ancient world, across all cultures? What were the justifications, actions taken, etc?
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I know that after the Roman empire fell apart, latin began to fracture into the romance languages. But at what point did Spanish, French, and Italian surrender the idea of being latin and finally give in to calling themselves Español, Francais, and Italiano?
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I just read Alex Wellerstein's Nuclear Secrecy Blog Post on this subject. In Summary Dr. Wellerstein believes that the German's probably did not know that the United States was specifically working on a nuclear bomb. However, the sheer scale of the Manhattan Project seems like it would have been hard to hide at an organizational level. Were the Germans aware that the project existed at some level but not what the project was doing?
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Whenever I've read about the Louisiana Purchase, the actual mechanics of the purchase is never discussed. For example, the Wikipedia article about it currently states that the US "shipped the gold to France" as if that was as simple a matter as heading down to your local UPS Store.
How exactly was this accomplished, specifically when things like a $3m lump sum down payment gets mentioned? It seems quite risky security wise for a young nation to transport that amount of gold to a ship, then trust the ship to transport it across the ocean, and then transport it from the ship to the French government, not to mention the risk of the ship sinking or getting lost at sea. It seems like the mechanics of this would be quite interesting and potentially have interesting stories around it, but anything I can find just attaches a handwavy footnote at best.
This question could apply to pretty much any historical event before the era of modern technology where a large sum was paid by one entity to some other entity far off, but the Louisiana Purchase was what specifically triggered this question.
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Hi all. Summer break coming up which means time for reading. I would like to read the two books in the title, The history of the Peloponnesian war by Thucydides and Hellenica by Xenophon.
I would like to know what you guys found to be the best version/translation of these books? I also seem to have trouble finding a book which contains all books 1-7 of Hellenica, I can only find books containing book 1-4 of Hellenica.
Bonus question - is there any book out there equivalent to Mary Beards SPQR just about Classical Greece?
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Hi,
For an master assignment, I am writing an essay about the narratives that arose after the unification of Germany in 1990. Because in part of my essay I describe how certain narratives arose during the German division. I am looking for scientific literature on west-german narratives surrounding the German division. I can find a lot about the east, but the west is very difficult.
Does anyone have any tips or directions?
Thanks in advance!
1 Answers 2022-06-11