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1 Answers 2018-10-20
Some historians, namely E.P. Thompson, have suggested that John Wesley's Methodist revival acted as a conservative force within the English working class of the 18th-19th centuries, preventing anything resembling the French Revolution from emerging in England. From what I understand, Thompson considered Methodists' piety and focus on tending to the poor to have weakened any drive to fundamentally address the miseries of the Industrial Revolution.
At the same time, Methodism was reviled by many in the aristocracy partially because of its egalitarianism, and Wesley himself was a fairly strident voice for abolition and economic justice.
To what degree is Thompson's argument true? Were there Methodist radicals who undercut his claims?
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Today:
AskHistorians is filled with questions seeking an answer. Saturday Spotlight is for answers seeking a question! It’s a place to post your original and in-depth investigation of a focused historical topic.
Posts here will be held to the same high standard as regular answers, and should mention sources or recommended reading. If you’d like to share shorter findings or discuss work in progress, Thursday Reading & Research or Friday Free-for-All are great places to do that.
So if you’re tired of waiting for someone to ask about how imperialism led to “Surfin’ Safari;” if you’ve given up hope of getting to share your complete history of the Bichon Frise in art and drama; this is your chance to shine!
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This subject interests me a lot, since it's a whole period in history concerning which the historical consensus completely contradicts the popular understanding of it.
Is this because historiography that goes against the Renaissance "Dark Ages" idea is recent? If so, how recent? And when did it become the "consensus"?
Edit: to be clear, I'm referring to the idea that "Dark Ages" is an improper term to describe the period, a notion tied to a less apocalyptic view of the fall of the Roman Empire. I'm not referring to the "New Chronology" conspiracy mumbo jumbo.
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So my question is basically how long did german civilians believe the propaganda news, that german wins on all fronts even it was not the case at all after 1941/1942. When did the public opinion started to question the propaganda lies?
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Scene in question https://youtu.be/JvQf0oHFMFg
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Whenever I see the typical Celtic knot motif on old carvings, it’s always from Ireland, or the Gaelic part of Scotland. I’d be interested to know if it was used commonly by Britons as well, since I’m not sure what the common art style was for those peoples.
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If there were no known significant deposits then it would make complete sense that Germany didn't put many resources into developing nuclear weapons.
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Examples of this New York, Pennsylvania, Illinois, and Michigan. All of these states have multiple cities that are far more populous than the capital.
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Is there any objectual evidence to this?
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The civil war era folk songs "The Irish Volunteer" and "We'll Fight For Uncle Sam" both state that the army (or at least the Irish portion of it) loved General George McClellan, even after he was removed from his command position.
My understanding was that McClellan was regarded as an inept battlefield commander and he had no particular ties to Ireland, being of Scottish descent.
I realize that basing my historical understanding on song lyrics is a recipe for misunderstandings, but it does seem like a good way to gauge the barometer of popular opinion at the time.
So with that in mind, my question is this: Did the Irish Americans love general George McClellan as is implied, and if so, for what reasons?
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