The accusation is made my Anthony Beevor in his history of WW2.

I've been reading about Greek and Roman tactics recently, particularly with regards to how they interacted with each other, and I started wondering how the Phalanx was ever so successful in the first place.

It seems like a manoeuvre that is extremely cumbersome and very easily outflanked by a lighter force with their need for extremely strict formations and pretty much no room for error. This makes me wonder how they prevented enemy armies from simply going around the sides of their formations and attacking from their weak flanks.

From a literature perspective, specifically Romantic and Victorian lit, France is important to so many British authors and poets. I've always wondered if the war affected this relationship at all?

Was travel restricted? Did the English face discrimination at all? How would your everyday French person react to an English person moving in nearby?

Why are Medieval-era middle eastern/indian weapons stereotypically curved (scimitars and sabres). Is this because they used these weapons more in history or is it something the media latched onto (like horned viking helmets)? If its an accurate stereotype, is this because Middle-Eastern and Indian societies used less metal armour than European ones?

Im a turkish person and ı recently watched a video about the distasteful views Gandhi had. That made me curious about the founder of my country. In advance, thanks for answering.

Specific emphasis on Vietnam, as it sounds as if Ken Burns’s documentary on that conflict suggested that since North Vietnam and the US weren’t formally at war for the conflict, they weren’t bound by international law as regards their treatment of POWs.

Edit: I’m asking specifically about the US’s conflicts from 1950-1998.

My question assumes that the depiction in Gone With The Wind was reliable enough to say that plantation owners in the deep south would throw lavish afternoon parties with many attendees, or close enough. If the depiction was not accurate, did afternoon parties like that exist in the 1850s southern U.S. and what were they like?

How did families attend such parties? How far did they travel? How did they travel? What would the travel time be like? Would they arrive the day of the party and leave the evening just after the party, or would they lodge somewhere? Where would they lodge? Would hosts be expected to put up attendees to such a party? How long would attendees stay if staying with the host? Plantations are seemingly quite large and therefore spread out. How is it possible that so many people would travel to congregate on one plantation? I assume they would arrive by carriage, how far could a typical carriage in the 1850s U.S.

The plantation Tara was depicted as being close to the city of Jonesboro, GA, about 20 miles south of Atlanta. Would rich citizens travel from Atlanta to a plantation 20 miles away for an afternoon party? How long would it take and was it possible to make the to and from trip in the same day?

Did individual class position or financial status serve as a useful predictor for one's membership in the party?

I love history and saw a CC near me offers a semester US history class up to 1867! I think it could be fun, do you think I could actually learn stuff?

Am I better off reading recommended books?

Clarification: I am familiar with the history and reasons why Protestants and Roman Catholics have different canons of scripture. That is not what I am asking here.

All of the earliest Protestant Bibles - the Lutherbibel, the Geneva Bible, the King James Bible, etc. - contained the Apocrypha in a separate section. Today it is very rare (at least in the United States) for a Protestant Bible to contain these books. When did the Apocrypha stop appearing in Protestant bibles? What were the reasons for their removal (i.e. economic, political, theological, etc.)?

Aside from what I've learned on Google I have yet to find any respectable research, articles, or books on this topic. Any recommendations?

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