[deleted]

[deleted]

In an audio series by Thomas F. Madden of St. Louis University, he mentions in passing that it was widely accepted by men in the time that Pope Boniface VIII kept as a pet a small demon with which the pope would use for his nighttime debauchery.

What do historians know about these stories? What gave rise to them and did they have any impact on the credibility of the Church in that time?

I am currently doing research for a paper about gender in the Viking era and have found some very interesting idiosyncratic perspectives. For example the Norns were described as the weavers of fate and Valkyries also played a role in the fate of men in battles.

Could there be greater significance in the fact that both these deities relating to fate of men were women?

Did the gender of these deities relate to the gender roles of the time they were worshiped?

Any books or good sources of information describing what life was like in the medieval times? Like describing everything from the town's, landscape, nature, festivals, war, even the life of merchants?

I recently watched the German miniseries on Netflix, it was great but I was just wondering how historically authentic the show is itself.

The German Democratic Republic, People's Republic of China even the USSR all have democratic names and even sensibilities. They never say anything bad about democracy but instead attach words like imperialist, fascist or revanchist to countries and ideas that trouble them. Is their concept of democracy different than ours? Was there once suffrage among workers and revolutionaries like in republican Spain? Or was it always a meaningless title?

As things turned out, did it actually speed up or diffuse the American campaign to conquer Japan?

This question isn't exactly timely, but I'm curious about it. Were there any athletes from colonies participating in the Olympics? If so, did they compete under their own country or under the flag of the Colonial Power? Did Algerians participate for France? Did Koreans participate for Japan? How about Austria and its European possessions? What about a place like Australia that has a status between that of a colony and an independent nation in 1896?

At least with the Greeks, they were camped on the shoreline and could feasibly have supplies fed to them by ship from their homeland. What about the Trojans? They were seized for 9 years! Was it taboo back then that you don't starve out a city? Thus the Trojans had no impediments bringing in supplies for the city? Or did they just have that large of an abundance of food?

[deleted]

I know the inquisition was mainly against all religions besides the Roman Catholic Church. So I wonder if many of the victims of the inquisition, were believers in the old Norse mythology.

Or is the time scale, between Norse mythology and inquisition, too big?

Hello people. I'm currently working in a short mobile about the macedonian insurgency from 2001. The only thing i do not find is a Video mentioned in a lot of articles, where an american helicopter should be Seen dropping supplies at UCK positions. Also it would be nice to get some further information about why Aracinovo was evacuated in what seems to me fast and hasty. Thank you in advance

I understand that more jobs equals more money for the people but it seems like spending money we don't have and sending it to Europe to be blew up would just make the issue worse, am I missing something or is all that was needed was for the U.S.A to print more money and give it to people?

Excluding Pearl Harbor obviously. If I were traveling to Guadalcanal, Solomon and Marshall Islands, is there a possibility of coming across remains in the jungles of these islands? It seems like there are too many islands and forests too deep for recovery to be complete. Not necessarily human remains but anything from the American/Japanese militaries. I don’t know the process for post-war “cleanup” and/or recovery of remains.

I’ve been listening to the history of Rome podcast and was looking up some stuff on Hannibal when I noticed a bust made of him looks like a Greek or Roman instead of someone from Northern Africa. Were the Phoenicians Mediterranean by descent like the Greeks or were they from Africa?

I’m just wondering if this is similar to why all the depictions of Jesus are that of an Italian man.

Also, a follow up question: did the Romans have issues with racism like we do in the modern world or was it just classist?

After the American revolution many of the people who had remained loyal to the Crown were moved to Upper Canada and Nova Scotia. Is there any record of Loyalists migrating to England? If so, is there any record of how their lives turned out there ?

(I am genuinly curious from a historical standpoint and am facinated in all peoples and cultures) Genuinly Curious so in the united states their was a civil rights movement for African americans. However, there are WAAY more blacks in Hispanic Countries than the u.s . (Blacks in those countires were formerly slaves who picked sugar cane instead of cotton.) for example brazil is 50% black, Honduras, panama, dominican republic, Columbia, venezuela, cuba, ect have sizable black populations too. I also heard that the U.S was one of the first countries to give up slavery and Hispanic countries were the last countires. However there seems to be tons of racial tension in America like black lives matter the alt right and such. However in latin America I have never heard of it.

Why was their no civil war either if many of those countries economies depended on slave labor too?

Also I have known some Black-Hispanics who went to grammer school with me and during black history month in school the teacher asked them how life was like as a black person compared to a white person. The culturally Hispanic black kids would look very confused and say “were not black we are Hispanic” despite clearly having African facial features. The black teachers would become confused and try to convince the students that they were black.

Why do African descended Hispanics not identify as black?

Why is there this vast difference in black communities in latin America and the U.S.A?

Also, why are mixed marriages less taboo in latin America than in the united states historically since their is a wonderful blend and mixture of different cultures in those regions?

Why was their no 1 drop rule in latin america either?

Thanks I am genuinly curious from a historic standpoint.