According to Wikipedia, Columbus and several of his men were jailed for crimes against the natives, and he was replaced from his position as governor when he was released. So, I'm assuming that the Spanish weren't to fond of Columbus (correct me if I'm wrong), so why did he get a holiday? What reasoning did people have to immortalize a criminal admiral?
1 Answers 2017-08-27
In a lot of old (1920s) movies there seems to be no problem with naked women. Compared to the later film industry in the 50s this seems surprising. When and why did this change and was there a campaign against it from conservatives?
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I have recently been reading about how the Romans ended up conquering Greece. From my relatively limited research it seems like the Romans managed to handily kick the Greek's, or more specifically the Macedonian's, asses on several occasions. Could someone elaborate on specifically what made the Romans so superior on the battlefield? Any incite as to Roman advantages on the logistical or strategic side would also be greatly appreciated.
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I know that a lot of Spanish gold and Silver made its way East on the Manila Galleons, but outside of that trade I don't know how much information East Asia had about the colonies. When was the first Chinese map of the America's created?
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So I know that immediately prior to WWII the Spanish had a civil war and the Nationalists supported by Italy and Germany won the war but was the war truely about Fascism vs Democracy or was this a gross simplification that I heard.
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I've read somewhere that in the 18th century, sailors would have to eat hardtacks filled with weevils. Was this the case for ww2 sailors too? What did daily diet usually consist of assuming the ship wasn't damaged or incapacitated?
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I've noticed lately that the UK acronym seems to be relatively recent and you don't see it much in older/historical works. Even the long form (United Kingdom) seems much rarer than "Great Britain" which you rarely hear nowadays. When and why did this change come about? Was there some sort of rebranding exercise in the post war period?
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Here is some context. From my layperson perspective, it sounds interesting and slightly compelling, but lacks evident support from historians/archaeologists/cuneiform experts. If this conclusions are true, how does change/fit within our perspective of Ancient Mesopotamia? In either case, how should I read into the prominent role of non historical experts on interpreting complex evidence/primary sources?
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With Nazis being the rage I have been at war with revisionist elements in my family attempting to preach a Hitler friendly version of history to the people I care about.
Hitler wasn't a socialist right? Did I miss a freaking day in school somewhere? Hitler killed communist like it was his job and they returned the favor asap, right? Nazism as a gateway to socialism, according to Marxist, that's revisionism or I have a poor recollection of my schooling.
I've found sources supporting my viewpoint but I need to know if I'm missing ones supporting the other viewpoint. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.
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And if this is technically correct does this means the byzantine empire technically fell in 1921 because ottomans technically "usurped" it ? It's a bit confusing honestly.
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Did life exist that much longer in the areas of Eurasia to make a huge difference?
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When Gondor calls for aid, they light a bunch of beacons (I'm sure we've all seen it). Does this have any historical basis, or was it just made up by Tolkien? It seems like a pretty practical idea.
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To my knowledge, most programs that served as commissioning and training sources for officers, with the exception of West Point, were established during or after WWII. But how did the Army select and train its officers for conflicts such as WWI or the Civil War?
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I'm reading this book called the "Freedom Riders" about the individuals who rode segregated buses in the Summer of 1961 as a form on non-violent protest. But there's one passage that keeps staying with me.
Page 16, chapter 1:
In 1910, with former Ku Klux Klansman Edward White of Louisiana serving as chief justice, the Court ruled in Chiles vs. Chesapeake and Ohio Railway that the state segregation laws could be applied to interstate passengers."
Now, I've googled pretty extensively and found no mention of Edward White being a former Klansman. Is there just no information on this? This book is full of citations to court cases and newspapers, but no citation is given to the statement in question. Can anyone with some historical knowledge shed some light on this?
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France obviously played a fairly notable role both in terms of aid and direct military assistance, but what kind of assistance was coming in from other nations willing to stick it to the British a bit?
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