I have always been told that Bristol (UK) was an important medieval and early-modern port city, but I recently saw it on a map and it is 7 miles inland. I also noticed that the town of Bruges in Belgium is similarly situated many miles from the coast despite being a major medieval port. Is there a historical reason why these historic ports were so situated?
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After the end of the War of the Third Coalition, was it Napoleon's decision or Austria saw it as advantageous to consolidate some sort of control over its dependencies or was it something else?
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Everything I've read/seen paints him as an incompetent, bully regarding foreign policy, specifically in regards to the USSR at the time. His use of the atomic bombs has been widely criticized as unnecessary, both by scientists at the time and his own four star generals
But today the man is practically viewed as a hero and we have this misconception that the atomic bombs are what ended WW2 when reality seems to paint a different picture. What happened between then and now that has the story so mixed up?
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As title says, I was wondering why they're called that way and not Templar Knights which,at least to me, sounds like the right way to say it?
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My questions has two parts:
1)Movies such has Fury suggest that Americans in the ETO of WW2 would often summarily execute captured SS men (retaliation for Malmedy?). I wanted to know if there was any truth to this, or if it is simply another Hollywood exaggeration.
2)I've read that most of the perpetrators of the Malmedy massacre ultimately escaped punishment after the war. I'm wondering how that could be, especially in light of my first question?
Thanks in advance! As a military history fanatic, this is by far my favorite subreddit.
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This question was prompted by a tweet (and subsequent reply) from Historian Thant Myint U: https://twitter.com/thantmyintu/status/839173381236781056
Rangoon (now Yangon) at the time had a huge population of Indians, British, and other 'foreigners'; The question is more about how populations native to the region (Bamar, Mon, Kayin, etc.) might have viewed the Japanese invasion.
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I've read a little on how Nazis were initially viewed very sympathetically here in the US (Hitler man of the year, Nazi rallies and Summer camps etc.) I've also been told that had we not gone to war with Japan, that Nazism may have grown to be a more serious political party within the States.
How accurate are either of these claims? What is the history of Nazism in America?
Edit: I realize a portion of this question might come off as a "speculative Nazi future" scenario. My comment on "not going to war with Japan... Nazism may have grown" was more simply to drive the point forward that Nazism had strong enough roots in America for this to potentially happen. In short: my primary interest is the actual history of Nazism in America, and less so "what would have happened if..." though of course, all knowledge is most welcome! Thank you!
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If so how long were roads typically unusable?
I know about sit-ins in restaraunts, but we're there many other forms of protest that leveraged blocking private or public land?
Were "protest zones" common in the 1960s? If so how did the leaders of the civil rights movement feel about them?
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I'm reading about Ur and it says they imported lots of gold and lapis lazuli. Where were they importing it from? Which cities primarily produced those minerals?
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/f/fa/Meso2mil-English.JPG
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I've been researching france as I have relatives over there, it has a great history, but I can't find out when it controlled the most territory, I am talking about both international and european territory.
Does anyone here know if so how much and when?
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I know that the Donner party incident happened earlier but Is there any record of a relative named "Sarah Donner" going to Oregon soon after? I found this book With many other old books.
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Was it everything west of the Appalachian Mountains? West of the Mississippi river? Perhaps west of the Rockies?
I apologize if this question isn't appropriate for this subreddit.
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Some of you may notice the pink and black triangle reappropriated from Holocaust patches into Queer/LGBTQ* movements.
I have family that survived the holocaust. I want know more about the holocaust and some historical accuracy for when I am in queer spaces. As far as I could find the pink triangle was only assigned to gay males. There was only one female imprisoned partially due to her being a lesbian. She was classified as asocial which is a black triangle. Most historical texts state that for the most part lesbians were not put into camps but did know to not be "out" or public about their orientations.
Historically, it feels like pink would be historically accurate. But I aknowledge the 1970s the black triangle was reproportionated for the female lesbian/queer communities. complicate things asocial/ black triangle was (as I understand it) use more for those who were disabled.
I do get looks from other queer females and GNC when I say I am feel more closely associates with the pink triangle over the black triangle. I am open to feedback but wanted to hear your all thoughts.
Pink? Black? Other historical insights?
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People bemoan the rise of partisanship and it seems most significant bills are voted along party lines, with only a few (if any) breaking ranks. Has this become more common in the recent decades or do people mis-remember the "good old days" of bipartisanship? Thank you!
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Sengoku Jidai has kind of a magical place in the pop culture awareness of many westerners, but if you sit down and ask ten people what it "was" you'll get fifty different answers somehow. To some people it was a mad dash for supreme authority in the nation. To others it was a break down in central authority, resulting in a group of people, no longer bound by threat of intervention, using the chaotic opportunity to settle old scores. Other people see it as essentially a somewhat ad hoc civil war with a particular goal in mind.
I suspect a monolithic answer like "because of X, the samurai decided to fight a civil war with each other to decide who would rule the nation" is grossly over simplifying, but the kinds of sources readily available to a layman don't give enough insight to really command a solid opinion.
When someone thinks of Sengoku Jidai what should they think of as the defining features of the era? Why was it so bloody? What kinds of goals could we expect to command the agenda of your average daimyo? Was the era marked by a group of people who wanted supreme authority, or was the chaos of the situation such that some warlords decided to exert supreme authority in order to bring said chaos to a close? And most important what made Sengoku Jidai, as an era, culturally, economically, and legally different from previous eras in Japanese history?
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I went through this thread and while the replies were interesting, the author did not cite sources for any of his replies. Below are the top 5 asked. Can any historians here help? Thanks in advance.
Q: How did the army handle addiction? Was there any form of crisis after the war was over, and doses were not longer bring supplied?
A: The Army tried to set programs into place that would take care of addicted soldiers. But they failed in the end due to lack of resources. After the war, many soldiers were still addicted, and my research shows that Pervitin (meth) use is very high in Germany even in the 50s.
Q: Did the Nazis view the soldiers as having a meth problem? I remember hearing that Japan gave soldiers drugs to reduce inhibitions about certain missions (kamikaze attacks, etc.). There are also reports of Allied soldiers being given amphetamines. Was the Nazi leadership giving soldiers meth strategically?
A: Strategically, absolutely. They issued the so-called "stimulant decree" in April 40, just before the attack on France. I dedicate a large of Blitzed on this.
Q: Were drugs used at all levels of the military, or just foot soldiers? How about within the Nazi government?
A: Pervitin (meth) was used by many officers, and it was especially popular among the Panzer divisions who led the Blitzkrieg. In the government there was also rampant use - all the way up to Hitler. But he didn't use meth, he preferred opiods.
Q: How common was the use of the same drugs in general? Were downsides known?
A: The Temmler company that manufactured Pervitin neglected the downsides, and praised only the "good effects" of meth. Only later people started realizing that meth was an addictive drug - and it was made illegal in Germany in May 1941. Does this answer your question?
Q: Did Hitler's health decline from taking too many drugs? Was there any recorded evidence of it?
A: It certainly did. The Nazi propaganda machine tried to keep this a secret. But some footage got out, showing how deranged Hitler was, and how strong his tremor. Especially the organ concoctions (described in the chapter of Blitzed called "Slaughterhouse Ukraine") paint a vivid picture of this.
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So my friends mom grew up in Gibraltar in the 1960's and there was always a fear that Franco would try and take it back for Spain. I think at times he blocked the Countries border with Spain. So my question is was did the UK and Spain ever come close to war after WW2, and if they didn't how likely would it have been to escalate? Would they a have sent a military force to liberate it like they did the Falklands?
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