Was Russia on the course to a successful transition from autocracy into a constitutional monarchy before World War One following the creation of the duma and other reforms during the decades preceding WW1, or was the transition doomed to fail amidst the failures of both the autocracy and the duma to deal effictively with issues like worker's rights, free (and unweighted) elections in the duma, etc.

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Hello historians, I have a question that I'm having a really hard time grasping. My plan was always too end up in law school, but I find myself straying away from that goal. I graduate this semester, and I'm not exactly sure what to do after that. My adviser recommended going to graduate school, but I know that road means I'd have to continue onto some type of doctorate degree. I also know it is extremely hard to find a well paying tenure job in academia, as most of my professors say this. I would love to work in higher level academia, and my school offers a very thorough graduate program in history. How applicable is going down this route? Should I just hit the pavement and find somewhere in cooperate America? Any advice generated from this post would be much welcomed, and thanks ahead of time!

I realize that the use of the word "genocide" may be anachronistic. I don't want this to be a debate over what this word means, so I am using it loosely and I hope everyone understands what I mean when I use it.

Can it be said that there was a phenomenon very similar to genocide in the Americas, wherein the Europeans intended to remove/eliminate the native populations of America in order to colonize the continent, and then ended up wiping out an overwhelming portion of them?

I've read that there was anywhere between 50-70 million people in the Americas (pre-European colonization). If this is true, it's astounding that today in 2017 so few native peoples there are left. On top of this, it's as if their cultures are almost non-existent. Their civilizations are certainly gone, without any heirs, while the Europeans have created an offspring of their civilization in America. How is this not some form of genocide, or ethnic cleansing?

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I always hear about vikings being off on battle and raids, so if the father was sent off to battle. How were viking children raised? How and at what age were they trained? what did the children do everyday? Were they allowed to play?

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I'm sure it's relatively easy to find the first films that used digital processes, but I'm curious as to what films were the last to use only analog processes.

I was listening to a political commentator on youtube, he was generally quite biased. But one comment he said got me thinking. He claimed that Obama did not have a good relationship with the Military because Military Officials did not want a " Black Commander In Cheif and he was significantly younger than most of the Military Generals."

Whilst I dont agree with him, his comment regarding age got me thinking. Is there any such correlation?

My girlfriend is doing an exam on the Magna Carta and she is struggling to understand the meaning behind articles 47 and 48 of the Magna Carta.

Could someone give a brief explanation of them both?

Articles 47

And all the forests which have been afforested by the king during his reign are to be disafforested, and let the same be done with regard to the rivers which are game reserves by this king’s doing.

Does this mean the forests are to be removed? Or does it mean that the king is to be stripped away from the rights to his forests?

Articles 48

What is more, all these customs and liberties which the king has granted to the realm, to be observed on his own account with regard to his own men, all the men of the realm, both clergy and laity, will observe on their own account with regard to their own men.

Thanks!

Is there any data on the age that Native American girls in the 15-17 hundreds typically had their first period? Are there any accounts of Native American life that mention this? Could someone point me in the right direction to find this out?

After WWI and WWII, how much did Germany pay to the U.S., have they finished paying, and if so when did they stop? I've found various numbers for how much they paid after each war, but nothing consistent and no clear explanation of when they finished paying or even whether or not the Germans actually paid. Sources and further reading greatly appreciated.

Also, were the philosophy/science related jobs only available to the elite or to people belonging to certain orders, or were they available to anyone that was interested? Were non-Muslims allowed to take these jobs as well?

I'm currently reading A Hangman's Diary by Franz Schmidt, and there are some references to a "strengthening draught" that was given to the condemned as they were walking to be executed. It is referred to as the "Stärkenden Trunk" in german. What is this draught, and what was it's purpose?