Was watching a TV show wherein someone got arrested in early 19th century USA. They showed the authorities apprehending the man, and then cut to him sitting in a jail cell. Got me wondering what would happen in between. How would he contact someone, like a lawyer or a family member? Also, what would the timeline be like between arrest and trial?

In intro archaeology courses we talked about the importance of cacao as tribute/tax, it's use in ritual and ceremonial contexts, and even it's trade into the U.S. Southwest. I'm interested in learning more about the chocolate drink, and even, if possible, how to prepare a modern approximation.

Do we have information on how the Maya made the chocolate drink? Have we been able to guesstimate different recipes either through residue analysis, or through written/ethnohistorical sources? Anyone attempted to make this themselves?

Thanks in advance!

Were the last days of Rome and Greece marked by mass societal androgyny in the arts and beyond? If so, is this a phenomenon restricted to classical civilisations or can it be identified elsewhere?

I was always taught that the terms imposed by the Western Allies on Germany after World War I had a humiliating and destructive effect on the German economy and civil society but after reading some of Gerhard Weinberg’s A World At Arms: A Global History of World War II this view has been challenged. He writes: “that Germany had been terribly crushed by the peace settlement, that all manner of horrendous things had been done to her, and that a wide variety of onerous burdens and restrictions imposed upon her by the peace had weakened her into the indefinite future” is really a “popular delusion”. So is the traditional view a myth? If so, how did it become so entrenched in popular knowledge and, finally, what role realistically did the terms of the settlement play in the rise of Nazi Germany?

What historical book/publication are you reading at the moment? Would you recommend it?

I'm reading The Korean War: A History by Bruce Cumings. I would definitely recommend it. It's challenged a lot of assumptions about the war that I was taught in high school and has helped me start to understand relationships in NE Asia a little better.

I'm talking about the period of WW2 and the Chinese Civil War here. Why is it that the Axis, i.e. the Rome-Berlin Axis, choose to favour Japan over China? While I get that these two powers were at war with each other, what precisely was it that made the Axis choose Japan over China? What advantages did Japan bring to their side that China could not? China has a larger resource pool, was very anti-Communist, and bordered the USSR, so might have even been able to put pressure on Stalin in the East. What did Japan have to offer instead?

What was the purpose of using different planes in different areas during wars? An example would be Corsairs being used on the Pacific front, while Mustangs and Thunderbolts were used in Europe.

Imperial Preference referring to the low tariffs between the UK and her colonies which was abandoned after World War 2. Did other colonial empires adopt similar policies?

I read somewhere (probably Wikipedia) that one of Joan's bodyguards and close confidantes was a pedaphile, rapist, and murderer. To the point where he would kidnap young boys, rape them, then kill them and dismember them to cover up the evidence. If this is just a conspiracy theory of some wack historian, that would make sense. But if there is a dark secret in Joan of Ark's close group of body guards and fighters, wouldn't it make sense to cover it up? I mean, wouldn't they want that to remain a secret. I mean, say that they discovered this only recently, even from accounts later discovered, would this affect Joan's "mythology" that seemed to surround her?

I've seen multiple people on this site as well as in books (such as Lost to the West) explain how the west viewed the Eastern Roman Empire as Greek, and as such effeminate (I can look up some examples of this if people would like me too). So as the title states, I'm curious what aspect of greek culture was deemed effeminate.

I'm wondering if anyone on here would be able to direct me towards an article (preferably) or something written on the conflict between traditional feminist history versus just general histories of women. I'm trying to elucidate if there is an accepted difference as some feminist histories can overlook capitalism, middle/upper class women and can anachronistically interpret oppression but I can't find anything brief on it. I personally come down on the side of history of women, rather than feminist history but I am finding it difficult to articulate.