I am just trying to find out more about my great grandfather and his involvement in the first world war. Thanks.

I realize this is pre-history, but I would love to hear the prevailing theories.

What exactly were the isolationist policies implemented in the Great Depression and what were their impacts?

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We often hear about the "Old West" however I've always wondered what the transitional period between the "Old West" and just the "West" was. When did the western "cowboy" lifestyle fade out and become more modern?

I am interested in how Native American collections have developed over the years from cabinets of curiosity to comprehensive collections. Thanks.

To be more specific, I'm referring to the years of weak leadership prior to major barbarian invasions, and by "average citizen," I mean citizens who would not be in positions of governing or military power, regardless of class.

Would they have an awareness of relative power or day-to-day effectiveness of their government, or would their minds be more on immediate, local issues?

Did the people feel like there might've been any role they could play in stabilizing and strengthening Rome?

The common depiction of Roman citizens is of those completely distracted by "bread and circus." How true might that representation be?

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Yearly, i do historical reenactment as a regiment of 17th century Danish musketeers. This year, one of my fellow reenactors decided to buy himself a brown, leather buffcoat, appealing to me that it had provable historical uses with the infantry. It ended up being word against word (we both found examples showing both limited use, as well as no use at all), and i would like to know if anyone has encountered something that could help clearing this up? The only solid info i could find, was the use of leather buffcoats with the periodical cavalry, as it provided som cheap protection against slashes, as well as cushioning for cuirasses. I admitted to proof of limited use (especially in England during the civil war), but could find no picturing or textual references to infantry buffcoats in Scandinavia.

This is my first question, be gentle.

I've seen many references about the fact that the UK was running out of manpower (military and civilian production) towards the end of the war. To what extent is this true and how does it compare to German and Soviet manpower in the final stages?

Is it completely arbitrary or is there a reason? Is it maybe because it is easy to remember? I feel like there has to be a reason but I am not finding anything with an answer... Frustrating!

I'm looking into buying a medieval style helmet to add to my collection of hats and the one that has me interested has a lot of reviews claiming it's too large to just slap on.

Was that common? I know modern helmets use some kind of leather strap system on the interior to hold things on, was that how it was done in the old times?

I know that our modern tech can produce purer metals and more advanced alloys than anything they could've produced. He also stated that today's metals are harder to fix up after they've been damaged (I know that this is incorrect). However, whenever I think I'm right on something, I usually look it up (If it's something easy to look up) and find out that I'm wrong to some extent. The main reason I ask this is for the reason that he's mostly right. The class I'm taking is art appreciation and most of the stuff that he talked about seems very logical up until this moment. I have some more questions that might get answered when my original question gets answered which would be: Why does he think this? For example, if the answer comes up as "They used techniques which utilized the softness of the metal to their advantage," then I could see why he would think that. Today he has been very wrong, as we have been talking about metal working. One of his claims about our shit metal was something like "What happens when your tool breaks?" Some classmates say you buy another "Exactly." Does he have a stake in this claim? Did he have a bad experience with tools in his past? Is he dumb or I?

I've heard the idea that WWI and II should be considered the same war separated by a brief hiatus as one pretty much directly influenced the other. Is there any merit to this line of thinking?

google just keeps pointing me towards a bunch of video-game related stuff.

surely they camp out of arrow and ballistae range but how far, or how close, would they risk being?

thanks in advance!

EDIT: i'd apreciate any and all examples from any given time period and especially the reasoning behind them.