The Finnish and Estonians are part of a separate language group, their languages and cultures seem to be different than that of any other European civilization. What are the factors that make them unique?

In any way, he is not the main cause but is he one of many?

Both the greek and the phoenicians had many colonise around the mediterranean world but how did they get the land they wanted?

I am very curious when seeing people make fun of other people's package when in reality it seems like it doesn't. Is this a joke than spans back into the books or is just a joke today?

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Specifically, in the early 20th century and before. And I don't mean immigrants/etc who traveled with all the things they owned not, probably, the super rich, who would just have servants handle their money. I mean a wide swath of the middle-lower upper class. If they took a steamship across the Atlantic or went on safari in Africa or adventures in India, how did they pay for everything? I would presume they would have to bring all their money with them, no? If so, weren't obvious European tourists in Africa/India rife for robbery? Was there a way to send money? And going back ever farther, what about pilgrims or travelers hundreds of years ago or in Roman times? They'd just have to bring money for the duration of the trip, no? Did this create problems and/or opportunities?

Just askin, because I always notice statues and busts from Greek times but paintings are quite flat and icon-like.

I just need to know which side had who. I tried Wikipedia but it really confused me

So in a simple manner:

• There were 2 sides, who was on which?
• Who lost?
• What resulted from that war?

There are those who say that many of the Church Fathers took the pre-existing philosophical ideas of Neoplatonism, appropriated them, and reworked Christianity into what we currently see in the philosophy of Christianity. Is any of that true? How similar are the ideas of Nicene Christianity (post 325 CE) and the ideas of Neoplatonism?

Can we compare the fitness requirements and the training regimes of the two groups?

Were there many Japanese fascists? What were their views on race and Judaism? What did they have to say about the holocaust?

For example, certain private collections may conceivably contain documents of importance, but you might not be able to see them because the owner refuses access. Are there any artifacts or sites in particular that historians are lobbying to gain access to?

I hope I'm asking the right sub about this.

My history professor has this written on his wall and underneath smaller "why the v?" I asked him about it and he said it's a secret, and no, he didn't just run out of u's. He also is very interested in Spanish culture and speaks it fluently. Any ideas as to what this could mean, and if it is related to history.

I've been on a bit of a Revolutionary War kick lately and have been reading some about how Congress went basically bankrupt during the Revolutionary War and owed lots of back pay to soldiers. My question is simple in nature but I suspect the answer may be complicated: were they ever compensated?

The Spanish Conquistadors managed to gather many rival Peoples to fight the Aztecs. How did they communicate with all these peoples complex ideas when the two cultures had just met? Did they somehow have translators?

Specifically, what change in life style between now and prehistoric times caused people's jaws to not fully grow to accomidate all teeth, including wisdom teeth? Did it have to do with what kind of food we started eating (grains, livestock), or how we started eating food altogether (plates, utensils)?

I know that standardization is something fairly new to English, which would explain why spelling varies between regions and authors, but, in Old English texts, there seem to be many variant spellings within a single document. Were these simply mistakes, or are these "misspellings" the result of a different attitude towards writing in general?

A man who was in the army during the Cold War told me that American soldiers would be stopped and executed if they were encountered by Soviet Patrols. I think he said this took place in Germany.

After Latin/Latinate languages and the old Germanic languages, the biggest influence on modern English vocabulary seems to be greek. I understand pretty clearly how Latin came through old french during the normal conquests and melded with the Germanic old English of the Saxons, but how does Greek figure in? Was it third hand through the Normans? (Greek > Latin > Old French > English) This seems tenuous considering the thousands of pretty pure Greek words in English. Was it a product of classical education that was pretty common among the literate classes? Something else?

In a business class we were watching a video on the history of economics, notably about Keynes and Hayek, and at one point it talks of Attlee's rise to power and how Britain's economy changed. From how it sounded, unless I've gotten it all wrong even while paying attention (economics is actually pretty interesting) the economy they had seemed pretty good, but now, to my knowledge, they don't have it. What made it work so well and why isn't it there anymore?