Where did the tradition start and why?

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In Game Of Thrones, when someone is on trial for something the accused has the option of choosing "trial by combat" instead of an actual trial. In this the they (or someone fighting on their behalf) fight someone (chosen by the prosecution) to the death. I think the idea being that the gods then let them live, or not, based on their guilt.

Is this concept based on, or at least inspired by anything historical?

It seems crazy that we occasionally hear about unexploded ordnance unearthed in Western Europe but little to nothing east of Berlin when the Eastern Front saw massive attacks and counterattacks.

Hello, this is my first post on this subreddit. I have always maintained an interest in British history, but I have observed that while it was easy for me to find material regarding the British Army, its composition, training, etc during the 18th/19th Century, I have not been able to find reliable sources regarding the training of the British infantryman during the Second War. So my question is this-how thorough was the training of British infantry, how long was its' duration, and how did it compare to Allied and Axis training of the same period? I did read some posts on forums that suggested that it consisted of 6 weeks initial training plus six more after being assigned to a particular regiment, but those posts did not specify a source.

I am starting my Ancient History 6th grade classroom this year. I chose to move up from teaching all subjects in 4th to just ancient history in 6th. I'm very excited. I am wondering if this group could help me with a couple of things. I am going to use the series 'History of the World Through 100 Objects' as a guide for the course. I will be adding my own objects as I go, because I only teach up to Rome. What are some objects that you would add? What are some interesting facts about the ancient civilizations that we won't find in our normal reading? Stuff that will stick in the head of a 6th grader?

Any and all help is appreciated. Thanks again.

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Hi guys,

This is such a weird question, but do any of you know anything about forensics or autopsies? Basically, I'm working on a story set 100 years ago and need to know whether poisons or drug abuse would of been detectable as causes of death in autopsies that far back.

Any help much appreciated!

After reading various accounts regarding the Spanish Conquest of America I was thinking if there are any traces of Aztec and Inca people who migrated towards Europe or were brought here by their conquerors?

For clarification, while both Night and Fog and Shoah were both documentaries, the question does not necessarily restrict itself to documentary film.

A famous saying of that time was "Indië verlooren, rampspoed gebooren!" ("Lost India, born calamity!").

Do you think he is a great guy who is loyal to the crown and plan to restore it or another Lord who wanted the whole Han Dynasty for himself?

I have been reading about past Olympics and found out that the DDR had a systemic doping program, (especially in Munich in 1972). Given so much was riding on the 1936 Berlin Olympics, such as Hitler's ideas of Aryan supremacy, would the German team have used performance-enhancing drugs?

EDIT: By doping I mean to take drugs that would improve an athlete's performance

Throughout my knowledge of ancient Rome I cant seem to find where the "elected officials" part of the republic is in ancient Rome. The senate was elected by the consuls. So how are the people represented? Did ancient Rome have a ballot and votes? Did they have town assemblies to decide on an official?

Thanks for the answers.

A lot of people I read (particularly social conservatives) speak of the sexual revolution as a fundamental and unprecedented change in sexual attitudes and behavior. And there were some unprecedented things, particularly around birth control.

However, when I read about history, I sometimes doubt how much things actually changed in the sexual revolution. A large number of weddings prior to the sexual revolution were shotgun weddings, implying that there was tons of premarital sex going on. In many many times in history prostitution use was common and sometimes even expected. There is a lot of talk in the historical record of men having mistresses, and so on. There seems to have been evidence of consensual nonmonogamy in the 1940s during the war, too.

So yeah, my question is, how revolutionary was the sexual revolution really?