Assuming that ports were built in narrow places that gets relatively less wind, to prevent ships from getting damaged in rough seas, because it is how it is today, but how did they manage to get back to open seas or anywhere that gets enough wind? Did they have man-powered tugboats(like sculling) or did the ship actually have a secondary propulsion system that was man-powered in case of extremely calm seas or situations like this?

I've been reading some historical fiction all based in Tudor time. But, if you can answer this about another period in history, that's fine, too. But, in these books, characters often talk about having to pay their maids in waiting and grooms and stuff like that. How much did those people make? How would a nobleman get the money to pay them? How much, total, did they pay out in a year?

Obviously colonizing Africa started to become a big thing in the 1400s, but why not sooner? For example were the Romans making trips to Nigeria or South Africa? Did early and middle age Europeans have contact with Mali other than through Saharan trade routes?

It seems (in my amateur view) historically Europeans were good at sailing near the coast and exploring - like you see the Viking exploration into North America. Is the route simply too difficult for ancient mariners to handle?

Let's say they are at a ford. Your average 500 AD battle, an army of 60 Romano-British men vs 60 Saxons (no horses, since the Saxons didn't use them for combat and these Britons are unhorsed for argument's sake). How would they fight? From what I've learned, both would revert to their own culture's shield-wall tactic. But once that's been done, what happens? Presumably they don't just stand there on opposite sides of the battlefield. When in battle are the throwing spears used? How do they try and defeat the enemies' shield wall? Now that we know swords were much more common than previously thought, would they be a main weapon or a side weapon, compared to the spear?

The man never lost in 100+ battles, in fact he even defeated prophet Muhammad in a war before he become Muslim.

In class, we are learning about the gulags in the USSR and how it is a microcosm of the Soviet Union. Our teacher talked to us about how the prisoners are removed from the rest of the Soviet Union, much like how the Soviet Union was removed from the rest of the world, thus the segregation is unfair and working against communism.

This is how I am trying to understand it:

1. Gulags isolate the prisoners from the rest of society. (the segregation part)

2. Segregation is unfair?? (the inequality part) This is where I have trouble. I don't know how I would go about explaining this part.

3. Inequality is against the communist ideology

4. Stalin's gulags don't work towards communism.

How is the isolation promoting inequality?

Thank you!

This has been one of my favorite subreddits for a long time. I just wanted to give a thank you to everyone who contributes these amazing answers.

Edit: I didn't realize so many people felt the same way. You guys rock! And to whomever decided I needed gold, thank you! It was my first. I am but a humble man in the shadows.

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Hello all,

As the title suggests, I was wondering if there's any evidence of the military leaders/powers actively avoiding or targeting significant historical buildings and sites during World War 1 & 2?

Modern war is known for being quite indiscriminate in its destruction, so I thought (hoped) there might be recorded instances where a building (for example) had been consciously spared due to its historical significance. And also the opposite: If a historically significant building was targeted, why?

Many thanks!

Is there anywhere I can find an unbiased overview of the current state of research regarding Jesus? (Who he was, what he taught, reliability of the gospels, etc.) It seems to be a contentious topic, and I'm having difficulty slogging through the endless back-and-forth arguments out there. (Arguments which I don't really have the expertise to judge anyway.) At this point, I'm less interested in the particular arguments, and more interested in what scholars think overall. Who are the primary scholars in this area, and what do they think? Is there a strong consensus, or is there a lot of disagreement?

The wikipedia pages on this seem to give a decent overview, but a lot of the references seem to be textbooks and pop-sciencey books rather than original research papers. I'd prefer something a little more academically rigorous if possible.

Thanks!

Solomon allegedly wrote the book of Proverbs. The Hebrew histories also say that he had an extensive trade network, meaning he could've gathered some of his wisdom through contact to the Greeks. If that is so, could Athena be Lady Wisdom (or the other way around)? The Bible does also say that Solomon turned to other gods.

I read that many men are named "Jesus" in Latin American and other Spanish-speaking countries. What explains that only in the Spanish cultural sphere "Jesus" became a common man's name but remained a taboo naming practice in most European countries?

I was playing Verdun, and I got into this huge (rather hostile) argument with another player about the quality of WW1 weapons - specifically bolt action rifles. It started when I mentioned that the Gewehr 1898 and M1910 Ross rifles had misaligned iron sights that were ineffective at long range. The player argued that it was common for WW1 rifles to be produced with broken or defective iron sights. Is there any truth to these statments? Or am I just going up against a troll.

Here's what I do know about WW1 rifles and guns in general:

• Yes, guns will not be pinpoint accurate in real life. Many factors determine accuracy, including breathing, stance and wind speed.

• Many guns prior to and during WW1 were actually produced with volley sights that extended up to 2000-3000 meters' range. These were used for mass volley fire against formations.

• Bolt action rifles were made to be accurate for long distance shooting. This is part of the reason why they are still used today for hunting and military sniping.

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Hello, I took a look through the book recommendation tab and didn't find quite what I was looking for so I figured I'd try here. I just recently finished The Sleepwalkers about WWI, and am very interested in getting a better sense about Bismark and how he shaped the politics of Europe in the period prior to WWI. Any recommendations are very appreciated.

Like how there are more "beings" alive now than a thousand years ago, effectively making more bodies than previous souls can be reincarnated into.

I assume these are just seen as fresh souls for the cycle, but what I'm curious about is how it's explained, if it is.

I'm getting my phd in a computer science right now, but I have no experience with academic history at all.