From what I understand, the Brown Bess was in service until 1838. The next service weapon I found was the Pattern 1853 Enfield Rifle. But what was used in between? The Pattern 1851 Minié rifle? That appeared in 51. I read something about a Pattern 1839 Musket, but couldn't find much about it. So what did the soldiers use between the Brown Bess and Enfield?

Saint Pierre-Miquelon are French islands located just off the coast of Newfoundland's Burin Peninsula. When the Nazis occupied the country, did their reach (or that of the Vichy collaborator regime) extend there?

Apparently Edward III was the first fluent English speaker but there's no reason to believe English was his first language, her Mother was French as the majority of the English nobility. One candidate could be Henry IV, he was born in England (not the first to do so though), but his Mother's family had been living in England for many generations, he was raised entirely in England and his first spouse was notably english, his second wive was Basque, maybe the first plantagenet King to not marry a French noble, he also joined the Order of the Garter, which probably was comprised mostly of English speakers.

I came away from today's lecture rather perplexed and did some fact checking of this statement. I used Wikipedia and Eric Foner's Give me Liberty volume 2 but found no reference to these missiles. So, I was wondering, how true is this statement really?

EDIT: Formatting

I just want to learn a little more about an area of US History I am unfamiliar with.

In the US, in 2016, anything that's left of Ayn Rand causes a horde of Grover Norquist disciples to start screaming about "socialism". Was there any kind of reaction like that and how did FDR get all of his policies passed? FDR's legacy seems like a fairy tale in today's political landscape so I want a historical perspective.

I've heard conflicting sides about whether the United States warned the civilians of Hiroshima about the atomic bomb attack. Can someone provide a reliable source wth a definitive answer?

Considering the east coast is the furthest distance from Britain on a world map.

I'm watching Saving Private Ryan, and the question popped up in my mind as to why we didn't have snipers on boats further off shore to snipe the machine gun operators. Did we have them, but they aren't shown and there were too many bunkers to deal with that they didn't really make a huge dent? Were our snipers not capable of reaching far enough? Is this just a stupid idea?

What about the other way around? Did the discovery of Chinese civilization send shockwaves through Indian civilization?

How did this affect Chinese understandings of "barbarians"? Was a similar concept in place in India that was challenged?

Was there a large scale transfer of culture, technology, and ideas between the two? Most people focus on the transfer of Buddhism from India to China, but did anything else have a huge impact?

Just like how the Beatles and Elvis became "classic" after nearly half a century, similarly, there was a time when "Classical Music" was the contemporary "modern music" of its time.

So how were Classical figures like Mozart, Beethoven, Bach et al seen by their contemporaries besides being "famous musicians"? Did they ever had a fanatical following like we have with the most popular rock and pop musicians of today whenever they released a new symphony or "went on tour"?

And finally, were they as politically active as many of the rock stars of our time (like Bono and Bruce Springsteen etc)? Of which I'm only familiar with Beethoven's Eroica and its Napoleon connection.

Richard is "Ricardo", George is "Jorge", Stephen is "Esteban", but how was the jump made from names like William to "Guillermo" and from Elizabeth to "Isabela" or "Isabel"? These manes sound nothing like the other and didn't just get the "a" or "o" at the end. How did this come to be?

I was reading about Julius Caesar's campaign in Gaul when I saw a mention of one of the motivations for the conquest being to pay off the massive debt that he had incurred as a consul and that made me curious.

How did loans work at the time? Who gave the loans? What happened if you didn't pay them back? Were loans only available to aristocrats or was there a developed financial market? Were the consequences of non-payment the same for everyone? I can imagine debt slavery as a punishment but would you enslave a former consul for non-payment?

Even if the question is primarily focused on late republican Rome, I'm also interested in any European society before modern financial institutions or societies/segments of society that didn't have access to modern banks.

By modern banks I mean the ones who were developed in renaissance Italy and later innovations.

Thanks in advance!

Physical differences? Mythological differences? Are they linked, how?

You often hear of nobles being exiled or beheaded, or of slaves being crucified. How was a plebeian citizen punished for, let's say, stealing, assault, robbery, etc?

A lot of evidence shows that women were somewhat equal to men during the Viking age socially, while legally there were some limitations to how equal they were to men. I'm struggling to find any sources that show proof of a change in women's life/women's equality after Christianity came to Scandinavia.