The Notitia Dignitatum (late 4th to early 5th century) already calls the city Constantinople. Is it because Procopius received a more Greek education that he uses the older name?

In the bronze age, how were wheel hubs made for trade carts and for chariots?

Wiki tells me that the lathe was only invented in 1300 BC, so how would egyptians, hittites, etc. have made spokes before then?

Hi r/AskHistorians! I just saw the Imitation Game for the first time, so I was reading up on how the Enigma Machine worked. The article said that a message could only be decoded by the receiver if their machine was set to the same settings as the sender. So how did they manage this? Thanks in advance!

Were the Nazis prepared to exterminate their own soldiers who fought for their country to carry out their ideology?

I have been reading a little bit about the Battle of Cannae and was wondering how the set up worked. The book says "... the Romans deployed their army... and offered battle. Hannibal obliged and both sides arrayed their battle lines."

What did this look like? Did the Carthaginians see the Romans setting up on one side of a field, just standing there hoping the Carthaginians set up as well? And then when the Carthaginians walked onto the field, did the Romans give them a chance to get all lined up before any attack was attempted?

I know I ask this specifically about Cannae, but I'm curious about other battles as well. Would both sides generally have time to get all set up, or would one side try to set up really quickly so they could attack the other side when they were still getting dressed?

I'm interested in women of all classes, particularly between the years of around 1000-1400.

And a more specific question: excluded from the university as they were, how and where did women learn to notate music (when they did)?

This has become one of my favorite historical books, and as I understand it it's fairly well-regarded, but this is something I'm most surprised by. I didn't even know there was much of any surviving literature from Mesoamerica, let alone this much. Is Mann correct in this assertion? And this might be a bit outside the bounds of this subreddit, but if there's so much in existence, where can I find it?

I understand that there were various civil wars going on between the period of 1266-1492, but still it seems like a grand kingdom such as Castile should have easily been able to defeat a much smaller emirate in those 200+ years.

Roosevelt says in his speech asking Congress to declare war on Japan following Pearl Harbor "And this morning the Japanese attacked Midway Island."

But, the only info google can find on any attacks on Midway seem to be talking about the later battle of Midway, so what events were he talking about?

Did they feel as though they had been unjustly attacked or did they see conflict approaching beforehand?

Trying to settle an argument with my dad. Obviously it didn't exterminate the Illinois Confederation on account of the living Peoria in Oklahoma, but did it or any other acts of reprisal for the murder of Pontiac actually occur?

Berets, bongo drums, cigarettes, etc.

Or that the Xiongnu drove the Huns west.

Was it the planes? Was it the intention of the war? Any help is much appreciated.

Constantinople fell 2 important times during the Middle Ages. Once by the Latins of the 4th Crusade, and one last time by the Ottoman Turks.

But why did the 1204 siege of Constantinople by the Latin Crusaders last only 5 days, while the 1453 siege by the Ottomans lasted 53 days, and was much harder for them to succeed? The Ottomans had far superior numbers, were better prepared with far superior technology (like their huge cannons), and the Byzantine Empire was much, much, much, much weaker in all fronts, compared to their 1204 state.

I know the Empire wasn't at its best during that time, and that the Angelos dynasty was beyond useless, having weakened the Empire significantly during the previous decades, but I would assume the Empire would have been much stronger, with more resources and able to deal with a besieging army, compared to the decaying, barely living state it was during the Ottoman times. What am I missing here? Why does the 1204 seige seem so much easier to me?

I understand why they were neutral in WWII, with the civil war so recent and Franco's high demands, but why did Spain not get involved in World War I? Was it courted by any side? Did it lean to a side at all? Which alliance would have gained most by its participation?