I know there were numerous forts around the Ohio territory and Canada, but if I'm not mistaken these were mainly just military outposts and trading destinations. The English, on the other hand, had a relatively huge population of people living in America--which arguably helped them win the French and Indian War. So my question is why was there this major disparity between the English and French in North America before 1754?
2 Answers 2016-02-14
I'm attempting to remember a historical figure who I read about a while ago. He was a mill or factory owner in the early 1800s in England, it may have been in the north. He was one if the first owners to implement rights for his workers, revolutionary at the time. For example they were fairly paid, not allowed to work more than a set number of hours a day, their children were sent to school, they were allowed time off if they were sick etc. The man's fellow mill or factory owners were astounded when he turned a profit.
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I read this book (great book by the way), and my impression of the conclusion of Chiang Kai-shek's Northern Expedition was one of a tenuous ceasefire, rather than outright conquest. Don't blame him, he had an army (NRA) of dubious quality and loyalty. This came back to bite him later, when, given this situation, he wasn't able to fight effectively against the Japanese and Communists. Yet when Mao and the PLA came to power, they swept all the warlords before them. Maybe it wasn't as easy as the Communists made it out to be, or did they do something their Nationalist predecessors didn't do?
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Asking this may be beyond the scope of or inappropriate to this sub, in which case I apologize; I expect it to be a fairly obscure topic, but as today is Valentine's Day, it seems a good time to explore the history of arbitrarily gendered cruft. It's an idle curiosity with a more serious interest underneath. I apologize for how general a question this is.
This probably doesn't need to be explained, but it isn't something one sees much discussion on beyond marketing critiques. Scented hygiene and beauty products (perfume, cologne, razor blades, deodorant, etc.) are typically marketed by gender despite minimal differences between products themselves. Often these are identical products with different packaging and scents. It'd be interesting to ask the same question regarding color and aesthetics, but what interests me more is why and how different smells came to be associated with either gender.
Poor attempt at mapping the dichotomy: "Feminine" scents and products tend to have flowery, "airy," "fruity," "organic" smells, while "masculine" scents tend to be smell more like spices, alcohols, drinks and soaps. I apologize for how vague and general this is, but although it's difficult to describe, it's obvious our culture regards certain smells as "feminine" and others as "masculine."
What I wonder is how on earth this came about. There isn't anything inherently gendered about scents like this--so why and how did we decide to gender code certain ranges of smells? Have those ranges been opposite (i.e. contemporary "masculine" scents being considered "feminine") in the past? Have other cultures had completely different sets of gendered scents? Somehow this fascinates me, but I have no clue where to even begin researching a topic like this.
To clarify, I am not asking for contemporary perspectives on scents, but for some starting points on how exactly cultures arrive at associating smells with genders. Histories outside Europe/North America are absolutely appreciated, and though I'm specifically interested in the history of gender-coding scents, more general histories of perfumery are very much welcome! Thanks!
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My grandfather bought this book in Moscow in 1915. It was published in 1914. Can anyone tell me anything about it? http://i.imgur.com/qhPTyEM.jpg
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Hello, I am making a short film set during the civil war. Part of it takes place in a Northern cabin, housing a 16 year old and his mother.
I am wondering what are some common phrases of dialogue you would hear during that time period. Specifically in one scene, the boy comes downstairs to the kitchen and the mother is cooking and she offers him some. So I am wondering how much different that scene would sound from the 1860s to now.
Imagine the phrase in current time period would be, "Hey hun, you want some bacon?" or something along those lines, how would that sound back then?
Also what were some common curse/swear words a Northern teenager might use?
Thank you
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I was in the antique store and I found this, not sure what it is, it just says, "12-10' ribbon primitive ochre." When you open it up, it is just the same triangle pattern repeated. I would love to know any info on it. Thanks http://i.imgur.com/UF63ewv.jpg
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While I can find glossaries of Victorian, Regency, and twenties terms, I am having trouble finding them for 18th century France. In French or English or both is what I am looking for.
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I was just watching a documentary about his children, and marrying his daughters off to foreign royalty seems like such an obvious choice to keep them safe. It seems that the oldest daughter, Olga, was about to turn 23 when they were killed which, especially for the time, was certainly old enough to be married. Was it that he and his wife didn't realize how bad things had gotten for them, or was there another reason?
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Is there any reading that I can pickup to extend my knowledge about him?
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I know that the Roman empire wasn't keen on private citizens carrying arms, and specifically dedicated a lot of energy toward preventing banditry. But by the late empire, we also start to see many of private citizens outfitting their own armed body guards / bucellarii, elites hunting, and a gradual privatization of organized violence.
I'm curious about what different people's experiences of weapons would be in, say, the 50 years before and after 400 CE. Let's limit this to the western empire.
How many ordinary, private citizens would have weapons? Was there a blanket ban on private arms (outside the elite), or did people have a spear in the closet? How would this vary between city and country?
How about elites? I know hunting culture was big, and imagine that means elites would have a fair number of spears and shields at least. I know we frequently find spearheads when we excavate villas.
What about soldiers? Did they each own and care for their own weapons, or were they stored in a central armory in the barracks? Did soldiers keep their weapons when they retired?
And how do private armed guards like bucellarii fit into all of this?
I'm interested in this question mainly because I want to understand the context for what came after. In 6th century England, half of the men were buried with weapons (spears, at a minimum), and weapon ownership, and participation in community defense, was pretty democratised. I know this is a huge change from 150 years prior, but I want to understand, specifically, how this change would have influenced attitudes and experiences of/toward weaponry as they became everyday civilian objects that had to be cared for and maintained by essentially every free man. But understanding the change requires understanding what that experience looked like before the post-Roman citizenry was armed, so I turn to you for help.
Reading suggestions are also appreciated.
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Like why did no one ever decide to mount giraffes?
They have so much extra height. Could've helped with scouting at least? They'd be a mobile tower with so much extra range.
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Why is it more common for soldiers in the later era to start getting PTSD than soldiers from around the world war era?
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Joseon Korea was known as the hermit kingdom, Japan and China had the Sakoku and Haijin respectively. What happened to make these countries enact more and more isolationist policies at relatively the same time? Or are they isolated incidences that just happened to happen at the same time?
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fx. why is it Sino-Japanese war and not Chinese-Japanese.
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I know there are communities aside from there, such as in Massachusetts, but when you think "Armenian-Americans" you're probably thinking Kardashians California, right? That is by far the largest concentration. But it seems that is you are coming from the former-Ottoman regions, you're likely arriving on the East Coast USA, so why did so many not settle there, and instead trek across the country? What was the draw?
Also, how did the Armenian community work to sustain itself through the 20th century, and also how accepted was it and how well did it integrate into the larger cultural fabric of the region?
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If not, why not? It seems to me that it would have given them an enormous leg up on the British. On top of that, they were positioned to do it.
Were there any people in French government who wanted this to happen?
Side Question: This seems like it would have been a cartoon villain move. Have there been actual 180's like that in history?
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Most of my background in the Athabaskan migration came from population genetics classes, which I promptly forgot/failed to keep up with new research. What does the current research in linguistics, archaeology, history, and genetics suggest on the timing of the migrations, the possible reasons behind the population movement, and the repercussions of their arrival in the Southwest?
Thanks.
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I'm interested in the birth and growth of nationalism in Early Modern English to the present day. Are there any good speeches, pamphlets, or general works which reflect the growing use of national identities to support foreign engagements or other conflicts?
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