I'm hoping you guys could perhaps give me some recommendations on some good sources, that are not in any way biased, I'd really appreciate it.

I always wondered why the Romans would invalidate the names of the months September and through December. Why didn't they rename these months to reflect their new numerical position?

I even know that the original names for these months were qunitilis and sextilis, which begs the question, "Why aren't these names consistent with their position either?"

Was it just that they picked up the basics of another language just for trading reasons? literacy rates in ones own language for the lower classes e.g. traders was very low so without the ability to practice writing down and learning how did people learn a foreign language?

Interested in particular in a Marxist perspective. Disclaimer: I am one.

I don't know his biography very well but from what I've seen he was influential in the Revolutionary War for two years until he was wounded in battle, and then didn't do much until the early 19th century. Can anyone shed some light on why he is considered a Founding Father if he didn't really do much during the Revolutionary Era?

When did this become a thing? Given that the weather has been unseasonably warm here in the midwest, I was wondering if anyone could shed some light on the matter.

In our AP US History class, we'll be having a debate on the main causes of the civil war. We were given five total sides to argue, everyone forming groups to support those sides. I picked states rights, wanting to pick a more difficult and commonly refuted side to argue. However, when doing research, I find that there are either more arguments against states rights then there are for them, and the one that are for them are often fallacious or ignorant of history, or not very in-depth. So I decided to ask the question here, hoping to get a more comprehensive answer.

Now, the question I ask is not if the south seceded because of states rights, but rather if the war was an inevitability due to the south's overarching struggle for states rights since before slavery was a commonly discussed issue. Is it possible to support the view that states rights were the main cause of the war, with slavery being the main symptom of them? If so, how would one support that view without being ignorant or fallacious, in a manner similar to the "lost cause?"

Looking for any good books/documentaries on the post war period in Europe.

From what I can gather, fewer than 5% of British soldiers were officers, but this was an exceptionally low percent because they got shot a lot.

My question is, what was considered an officer? Everything from NCOs to COs? Does that mean that 95% of the British army was made out of Privates? since from what I gather, anything from corporal up is NCO and CO.

Link in comments.

The two events are not far apart.

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The United States and the United Kingdom had had a "special relationship" since the end of the Second World War (I believe). Was this not a military alliance? Also, the NATO charter says that an attack on one country in NATO is an attack on all of them. So surely the United States should have taken part in the Falklands War?

So I've been reading Paul Collin's book 'the birth of the west' which is about western Europe in the 10th century. In the book there are multiple examples of kings sons rebelling against there fathers in attempt to seize power. When the king quashes the rebellion in every case he seems much too leniant and almost always lets his son go free. My question is, why would a king forgive disobediance so easily?

Even today, suits and musical instruments (especially jazz instruments like horns, the upright bass and drum kits) are prohibitively expensive. Yet in photos, early jazz and blues musicians are always wearing nice fitted suits. How were poor black musicians getting all their suits and instruments?

I've heard this for a long time. I don't recall ever hearing that the game ended in sacrificial rituals outside of a Discovery or History channel 'documentary' so I'm pretty suspicious about the claim.

Co-worker asked me so I thought I'd take the opportunity to ask the sub.

Thanks!

Is the pattern purely decorative or has it served a purpose in the past?