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Primary and secondary will both work.

I tried googling it but got nowhere.

Is it simply a matter of only having preserved records of ancient Greek sources but no sources from other lands and cultures? Did Greek science quickly spread into the rest of the contemporary world, such as to Persia and India? If so what was the reaction there? Or was this science already known?

In hindsight it would seem a bit of a disadvantage because not only are the cities getting weaker because of paying tribute but they are making Athens strong. So in the case they want to rebel they have nothing. Why would they not instead use the money to furnish ships and contribute them? At least then if they part ways they take the ships with them.

This is mainly targeted at /u/ChocolatePot and /u/Kittydentures who mentioned it a bit in their AskHistorians Podcast episodes and I wanted to hear further elaboration. Further input is welcome as well!

In many accounts of Yi-Sun Shin and the Japanese invasion of Korea he seems to be a lynchpin in the Korean resistance, systematically destroying the Japanese invasion force. Did he really have as great of a impact as it seems? Or is this just great man history distorting the facts?

On the other hand, why did we never say "Eastern Germany, Southern Vietnam, etc." or something similar for other split nations?

With the advent of the Industrial Age, armies became more and more reliant on mechanically complex weapons, intelligence gathering, communications over long distances, and eventually even sophisticated electronics and machines such as planes, tanks, and submarines.

With a general lack of "universal education" being in existance, literacy and education were not as advanced or common as they are today, and of course required of soldiers. During periods of mass enlistment and conscription, soldiers from all social and economic classes would be drafted, meaning that no small portion of these soldiers were under-educated or even illiterate, even up to current times!

How did army's develop ways to identify, screen, and utilize the manpower of these soldiers, especially during periods of conflict where manpower was in short and desperate supply?

Edit only now do I realize the irony of misspelling "armies" as "army's".

I find it strange that there are no remaining Roman gens left, not even in Italy, the heartland of the Romans. What happened to them, and why don't we seem to have modern corruptions of ancient Roman gens? Or did Roman nomens survive and we just never notice them?

When I say Transylvania I mean the entire region part of today's Romania, north-west of the Carpathians (Ardeal, Banat, Maramures, Crisana).

I grew up in Romania, and you can imagine how politicized the issue is, and that reflects in the way history is written and taught, so I'm not sure how much I can trust what I've been taught. The main story is that ethnic Romanians have essentially always been the majority inhabitants. I hear in Hungary by contrast the popular thesis is that large migration waves post Ottoman conquest in the south are responsible for the large concentration of Romanians in Transylvania.

Is there a consensus among international (read: neutral) scholars on the matter?

Between 200AD-476AD primarily

The idea is that a black civilization built and ruled ancient Egypt but was taken over by Arabs and history erased. The only piece of evidence pointing towards this I've seen is that all the statues have their noses removed (as the nose is a distinct physical feature between races) What do you guys think of this? (I hope this post is appropriate, I am really curious if anyone has heard of this before and their thoughts)

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Frankly, I feel it makes a great deal of sense for the most part. I have had several professors denounce the thesis as incorrect, but important to learn about.

How was it different to the way in which other British colonies at the time were managed? Did North Sudan, South Sudan, and Darfur receive different rights/treatment? How much did Egypt have a say in its administration?

Also, what was the supposed future of the region? Would it have been different if the revolution in 1952 had not happened?

At the end of Master and Commander, Capt. Jack Aubrey has the ship refitted to look like an English whaler. The French ship falls for the deception and approaches only for the British crew to reveal their identity at the last moment before surprise battle ensues.

Had this happened during this time, would it have been considered legal by either sides articles of war?