according to her That's why he lives on an island, has never drunk alcohol before and why he generally displays "savage" behaviour like trying to rape Miranda. It's also why the play treats Prospero enslaving him as justified.

Descartes was kind of a big deal in the early modern period. Obviously, his philosophical work was tremendously important. With regard to science, his Discourse On Method is often mentioned as something of a seminal text. His mathematical contributions are also well known to anyone who has ever worked in the Cartesian plane.

However, what I want to know is how big a deal his more purely scientific works were, such as The World. Did his scientific framework gather a large following? Did his Copernican views play a role in the adoption of that paradigm in astronomy? How influential was he on the physics that came later, especially the work of Newton?

By which I mean, how much time would they be able to devote to it?

I'm a falconer (or austringer technically) and in modern falconry we try and spend as much time as we can with our birds, to get them used to being around us. Also during the hunting season we're out flying everyday the weather permits. All of which means it's a very time intensive sport.

I've heard of wealthy individuals hiring professional falconers, but as a general rule a bird learns to work with an individual, so would the falconer be the one flying the birds while the lords merely watched and maybe held a hooded hawk on the fist, or would they devote the time and effort to fully training a bird themselves? Or probably the most likely, it varied from person to person?

I'm mainly thinking about Europe, rather than the middle or far east, and by medieval I'm really trying to ask about falconries heyday which I'd guess would be anything from the 11th to 17th centuries.

I am curious. He is often shown as the first Roman emperor. But I heard that he was only a life long dictator and that Augustus was the first emperor.

I'm watching Peaky Blinders and it's got me interested in organized crime in Britain pre and post World War 1. Any have any resources I could use to delve deeper into this topic?

How old does something need to be officially studied by historians? I'm particularly interested in topics like political history and events that are still controversial today, but occurred within the last 100 years or something. Is there any official limit to the age that something has to be to be examined by historians?

Edit: Thanks for the replies!

I have recently heard a claim that "most of the slave traders were Jewish", and all sources I can find lead me to heavily biased diatribes on the matter. Is there any truth to this statement, and is any of the available material on the matter academically sound?

Basically, I want to learn more about the more recent history of all those people living to the south of me. Help!

Just using my imagination, we may have used specific cloths for that task and cleaned them up afterwards for repeated use, or perhaps we used leaves.

My dad is a white American and has always had a United States passport. When he was 23 years old, he embarked on an attempt to walk from Cape Town, South Africa to Cairo, Egypt.

He landed in Johannesburg in spring of 1985, flying in from London via Lusaka, Zambia. When he was going through customs, an agent told him they had to search his belongings and for my dad to follow him. My dad followed the agent through the innards of the airport while the agent held on to his belongings. The agent held open a random door in a deserted hallway and told my dad to enter. My dad walked in and before he could think the door was shut behind him. It was locked and had no inside door knob.

My dad describes the room as a low-budget hotel room with a bed, T.V., full bathroom, and no windows. He spent a little more than a full day in this room banging on the door yelling, watching T.V., sleeping, and showering. He was not fed but was able to drink tap water.

Roughly 24 hours later, a customs agent entered the room. He returned my dad's belongings and told him he had seven days to leave the country and to never come back. My dad didn't ask any questions and walked free. He assumes they thought he was either a journalist who came to write about apartheid or someone who had come to work illegally.

Does anyone know how common this practice was in South Africa? I've done some google searching but haven't come up with anything. How much worse would things have been for my dad if he was Africa-American? Just looking for any information surrounding this type of behavior in South Africa around this time.

I suppose I should qualify that by saying I understand why nationalists in Northern Ireland would support their own parties instead of British ones (though many members of Labour - including newly minted leader Jeremy Corbyn - supported the nationalists). But why did unionists start their own political parties instead of supporting, say, the Tories? It's odd to see the major UK parties historically contesting seats in Wales and Scotland, but not Northern Ireland.

Were important cooks for the court always men? Were there female hear cooks in charge of royal feasts, etc? I understand there was some superstition about women on ships, so that explains male cooks in one context. But in other important roles, what was the gender breakdown on professional cooking?

In Chinese period media, a very common trope is that of the jiu dian, or restaurant/hotel. This is usually a multi-story building in a city or town, where the first floor acts as a restaurant, and the second floor has rooms to rent. I mostly see this in TV shows or movies set in the Ming Dynasty or later, but that is probably because most shows or movies are set in or after the Ming Dynasty. When did these restaurants/hotels start to exist in China, and how accurate are the media portrayals? I suspect that this is the Chinese equivalent of the "medieval inn" trope.

Edit: To be precise, I am not asking about modern hotels, as I am aware that they can be called jiu dan.

According to Wikipedia, he received the Air Medal and one Gold Star, for 78 missions over Korea - how does that compare to the standard for Korea-era Naval Aviators? What were the requirements for NACA test pilots? Edwards pilots, in general?

I understand that there was something of a rotation for the astronauts but why give the Apollo 11 command to an astronaut with just one mission's experience? (And a mission cut short, at that.) Armstrong was clearly doing something right but so were the rest of the astronauts, many of whom were more experienced.

Related, I've seen a few vague references to particular astronauts having been "groomed" for major assignments, including speculation that Grissom was the early front-runner to be the first American on the moon; what are the details on that? (I imagine it's in Slayton's book, if it's in any, but I'm currently trudging through "Seven Pillars of Wisdom.")

Thanks.

Sorry for my vague title, I know next to nothing about Cold-War Germany. I know that during the Weimar Republic's "Golden-era" (especially 1924 ~ 1929) there was a lot of decadence to be had, things were very lavish (e.g. Prostitution although illegal was excepted, Organised Crime, Sexual liberation for LGBTQ communities) & people could be fairly open about their sexuality (e.g. Magnus Hirschfeld's Institut für Sexualwissenschaft).

Due to Hitler coming to power in '33, Things like Hirschfeld's centre was closed down & the perceptions of sex changed from being pleasurable to a "means to an end". However after the fall of Hitler in '45 & the Allies occupying & splitting Germany into two (until 1990); Did anyone in either Germany try & revive Weimar culture? Why?/Why Not?

Also how were Women perceived in Cold-War Germany? Specifically East Germany, because obviously Germany underwent the Nazi's & then specifically not only did the GDR undergo Nazism but they were subjected to Communism as well? How did the two ideologies differ in their views on a Woman's roles?

I ask because Women went from being fairly liberal in Weimar's "Golden-era" to being seen as solely the producer of Aryan children (with propaganda like "Kinder, Küche & Kirche") in Nazi Germany. So how were women perceived in the GDR compared to the FRG?

I'm embarrassed to ask this with it being to do with Psychology and all, but having next to know knowledge on Cold-War Germany I don't know this & therefore ask;

Even though some of the first cases of sexual reassignment surgery date back to the 1930's, with the increasing development of HRT during 1960's & Dr. John Money's theory (even though it's widely discredited now) theory on Gender development & Nature vs Nurtue (with the production of Anti-Androgens, even though both Testosterone & Oestrogen had been independently isolated & synthesised long before that) How was coming out as being transgender perceived in both Germany's? How easy was it to transition?

Thank you, to anyone who can answer my questions :)

Was there any actual doctrinal or military research behind it? did having a stick give you advantage over a non stick style such as being able to throw it further?

I'm really fascinated by Feudal Japan but I'm unsure where to start to learn more about the history of the region in that time.

(I looked through the sub rules and didn't find anything saying this wasn't allowed here...Mods please let me know if there's an issue)

Thanks!