The volcano sees all worlds.

Obviously this is a very controversial claim. Belief that the Emperor could have manipulated both sides of the war might seem outrageous, but hear me out.

It's hardly a secret that the Republic was truly controlled by corrupt bureaucrats, and the only possible thing that could bring forth a strong leader would be the threat of war. Obviously no major enemies of the Republic were still around. The Sith Empire, gone. The Mandalorians, reduced to mercenaries. But out of seemingly nowhere, the Trade Federation, which had the Droid army to combat space pirate attacks, suddenly attacks Palpatine's homeworld, Naboo. Of course, we all know what went down there, but that is far from the end of it. It was at almost that exact time that Palpatine was elected Chancellor, after a vote of no confidence of the seemingly incompetent Valorum.

Could Naboo have been the target of the Droid Army to rule out any possibility of Palpatine's involvement?

After the Trade Federation joined forces with the Techno Union, Banking Clan, Baktoids, Geonosians, Quarrens, and countless other forces, they, of course, formed the Confederacy of Independent Systems, led by Count Dooku, a fallen Jedi. Many claim that a "Darth Sidious" was Dooku's master. Holovids of this supposed figure show a chin that very much resembles that of Palpatine...

To clarify, I'm not referring to the exclusion of the Apocrypha resulting from the Catholic-Protestant split following the Reformation of Martin Luther. I'm referring instead to the consensus arrived at during the Councils of Carthage, Nicea and Trent, between 300-400 AD.

Are there any reliable sources detailing the discussion and rationale that was held in arriving at the canonical books? Such as why the book of Enoch was not included, and why the books of Paul make up the majority of the New Testament? I'd be really interested in reading an actual surviving transcript of the dialogue that was held during the Councils.

P.s. To be extra clear, I'm not necessarily looking for an explanation which encompasses the scope of the Torah, simply the Christian New and Old Testaments. Thanks in advance.

Popular accounts suggest there was one little fight caused by some up to no good b-boys which scared the Queen, but is this accurate? Could one fight have lead to the evacuation or were there more sinister events we don't know about?

I hope this fits the 20 year rule - according to wikipedia the prince was first sighted in bel air in 1990.

Was it an inability to grasp the revolutionary nature of combined arms warfare? Was it a severe lack of resources? Or did Saruman expect light infantry to successfully defeat heavily armoured cavalry?

I was in high school back in the '90s during the Eugenics Wars, but I don't see that subject taught much in our schools anymore. It all seems very suspicious...

Or did it just make him go into hiding under the pseudonym Neptune?

And wouldn't the philosophy be more suited to tiger life instead of humans?

I'm really starting to question the authenticity of George RR Martin's recordings.

As title says, why were there war hawk elements in the Japanese government in the 1940s if the strategic reality was that they would lose a prolonged war against the industrialized American military? What specific figures/policies/events lead to the declaration of war and the end of diplomatic relations with the U.S.?

They seem to have gone from hegemon to conquered state remarkably fast.

He was clearly effective as propaganda, but was he at all relevant to the war itself?

As we all know, the daughters of King Lear's feuding weakened the Britons vis a vis their powerful neighbors France and Burgundy, those two great powers of pagan Antiquity. This custom seems extremely dangerous, as Cordelia pointed out and as Goneril and Regan proved. Was Lear's partition something commonly seen or was it an innovation? Were reigning female rulers with male consorts (the very Brythonically-named Albany and Cornwall, of course) commonplace?

One other question: the history of Lear records Lear's court jester referring to something Merlin will later say, but "This prophecie Merlin shall make, for I live before his time." Now, as we all know, Merlin lived time backwards, but did the historical Merlin actually get around to making this prophecy the jester predicted?

Thanks kindly. I always wanted to know more about Britain in Lear's day and its relations with France and Burgundy, but it's so hard to find something that covers the period.

Lord Tywin must be held responsible for his crimes!