My grandfather fought at the Battle of the Bulge and liberated several concentration camps by his account. He even stayed after the war several years to help stabilize things from what I understand which severely impacted his health for the rest of his life. He died nearly 20 years ago. Is there a way to request records from the army or something of what exactly he did or do documents like that just not exist?

This post could also help those looking for the same thing.

I live in Chatham, in Kent and there is a story that the Union Jack was designed here, in the Royal Dockyard. British Airways even refers to its Livery as "Chatham Historic Dockyard". Is there any actual truth to that story?

I am interested in him as a person, and in how far his ideology formed the happenings of the great terror. How much of what happened 37/38 can be connected with Stalins life experiences?

There are just so many and I don't know where to start. I can read English, German and very little russian :P ... so this would mean a whole lot of work. :)

I'm currently writing an investigation into the the causes of the revolution and I'm trying to dicide whether I can discuss events that led to the downfall of the regime to be part of the events that caused the restoration. Or is it a case that I have completely the wrong idea?

My family is from the South, I am from the South and so growing up I would always hear stories from my grandfather about how poor they were. He always told me they had no roads in his East Tennessee farming town or electricity, or running water, or sewage, and a plethora of other common things. My grandfather ended up joining the Tennessee Valley Authority and as I've read and as he's stated they brought more modernity to the region. My question is was the South in general this poor and backwards (barring cities like Charleston, Atlanta, etc,) and if so what brought about the urbanization of the South?

What sort of ways have people used throughout history to identify other people who belong/don't belong to the same caste as them? Couldn't someone just change their clothes/dress and attempt to pass themselves off as a member of a separate caste?

I've recently watched the movie: "the Imitation Game". I know its historically accurate but I don't understand how the Nazis knew each morning to witch settings to configure the enigma machines? Did they post a message each evening saying :"tomorrow set the machines to these and these settings"? And if they did, then the allies wouldn't need the Turing computer after the first time, or am wrong and missing something here?

Islam, for example, was not welcomed by the Arabs, and over time Mohammed built an army and eventually made non believers surrender to it. Similarly, it spread throughout the world, using force, wars, and violence. I have simplified things a lot here, but more or less we know accurately how Islam dominated Hijaz and then other parts of the world.

However, Jesus never built an army or a massive number of followers while he was alive (if I am not wrong). Then — due to my lack of knowledge — it seems that all of a sudden it becomes more and more popular until it virtually obliterates all other competing religions of its time (in Europe).

Do we know how exactly it started to grow and why people, if I am not wrong, willingly converted to it?

Same goes for the 1860s or even the 1790s for that matter. When did people start using "-ties" when talking about decades?

I've read that the Romans adopted some changes, such as the adding of crossbars to their helmets, in order to counter the strength of the Dacian falx. How true is this?

Would England alone be enough to destroy the german war machine? Would Hitler have won the war?

We know about the knights of Europe, the Vikings, Samurais, African tribes, etc. But I have been wondering about wars and weapons in South East Asia (SEA) during the pre-modern era.

Another question, when in Thailand, I saw a play and noticed many soldiers with dual wield weapons. Was it just for show or did soldiers in SEA actually dual wield weapons?

Everyone from England to Bulgaria was involved in WWI. What did the countries that were not active players doing during this time? Surely the war would have forced itself upon their lives in one way or another.

Aren't all historians engaged in an ongoing revision and refinement of prior historical views? Haven't they always been? Does the term have any meaning beyond this rhetorical attack on some previously held view?

When the loyalists fled back to Britain what happened to all of their property? Were they able to sell it first? Any evidence that they were forced to sell at low prices to US citizens? Did the US government take land and resell it?

edit: rearranged questions to clarify objective of each.

I've heard a lot about the Domesday Book, but it just doesn't seem very important. I also know that William I wanted to keep the laws as close to the original laws of England.

The actual words which he used were that all things should have "the laws of King Edward in lands and in all things, having added thereto the things which I have appointed for the welfare of the people of the English."

(Quote from The Life and Times of William I by Maurice Ashley)

Is it simply due to the hardships of travelling through that part of Russia/were there any failed expeditions?