Is it something to do with colder climates?

And what brought about this change in attitude? The question of course refers to the Biblical prohibition against eating aquatic animals without fins and scales.

Thanks in advance.

It seems like the only two nations participating in the Space Race (A quick google says it was from 1957 to 1975). Why weren't any other countries involved? Did Britain or France have their own active space agencies at this time? Or any other country for that matter. I'm interested in any space programs/experiments that were occurring during this time period that is not a part of the US-Soviet space race.

If, during this time period, the Soviets and the US were the only two nations exploring space/launching satellites/doing whatever it is you do with space, then when did other nations begin their own space programs?

If I'm basing this question on a false premise, or you know of any examples where its some country working jointly with the US/USSR then I would like to hear about that as well. I'm just curious about what the rest of the world's space programs were doing in a time period that is pretty much dominated by the US-Soviet race.

I'm confused and have been confused for years, and I was wondering if it's still the same as before? Does it remain unchanged? It seems that way. Because I've seen the similar symbols and letters from books, movies, photos, etc. compared to ancient

Queen Mary's Army Auxiliary Corps was disbanded in 1921, and the WRAF was disbanded in 1920. What other capacities would women have held in the British Armed Forces during the interwar period?

I understand that Caesar, later in his life, chose Octavian to be his heir. Which brings a few questions to my mind. Why did Caesar choose Octavian? Did he chose Octavian because he felt he was the most competent, or was it only for family reasons? To what extent was Octavian aware that Caesar was going to name him as his heir?

And on a side note another question that does not merit its own thread, When Ocatvian becomes emperor, how often does he speak about Julius Caesar, and what did he have to say about him?

Many thanks in advance everyone!

and do you recomend a book about Japanese history in general?

Would the equipment available to him in Nara Japan, for example, be comprehendable and discernable, or was there vast differences between smithing in Asia and Europe at this time?

I realize the ideas of an Asia and a Europe are not applicable to medeival times, and I also realize the techniques of blacksmithing may have drastically changed during this period of history (700's-1400's, give or take) so take whatever historical liberty with your answer and explain as best to your ability.

What would be the differences between Asian and European metal forging during the Middle Ages? What techniques, equipment or otherwise were developed for either society?

I have a family friend who has asked me to help him in his mission. He is trying to verify whether this large chest like piece of furniture was from Hitler's personal library or not as claimed by the previous owner. How can I possibly go about contacting someone who would know about this?

I ended up getting in an argument with someone who believed that the Armenian Genocide did not happen. I find that absolutely disgusting and insulting but beyond the fact that there are pictures I would like to know the backstory and what physical evidence there is to prove it.

The guy so happened to be Turkish which may make it more obvious, but why is there such a denial for genocides committed by the Ottoman? They committed numerous genocides didn't they?

Thank you very much and I appreciate your time.

Would the animals eat the baby? Die from hunger? Is there a specific cliff on map where they threw them off?

Obviously, there were models in Greece and Rome, and more modern republics such as Venice, as well as the beginning of a parliamentary system in Britain. How different was the US system from the others existing at the time, and how was it perceived in Europe?

north or south. what qualifies a civilization?

Opposed to a bare head, did those crazy spiked helmets actually provide any sort of protection from anything?

Throughout Southeast Asia (Malaysia, Indonesia, Thailand, Vietnam etc.) the Chinese minorities have always been seen as the wealthier group often excelling in business compared to the locals of where they settled. They often made up the middle/upper class in these countries. How was that possible when the Chinese who often settled in these countries were poor migrants?

Normally it seems America is more successful than any other country at exporting their culture, companies, etc., yet with sport European sports (rugby, football, formula 1) all are more popular internationally than American sports, and are growing faster in America than American sports are growing in Europe.

What's caused these sports to spread so much better?

Please keep in mind that this is just an idea that I had. I want to see if there is any research supporting or refuting it. Feel free to expand upon/correct my thinking.

I recently was doing some thinking about how early cultures had developed from nomadic to agrarian and so forth. One common question that people come across in early history is the question of why there were not any large scale civilizations in the fashion of the Mesopotamians or the Maya that developed in the northern part of North America. Afterall, the region was by no means empty, but it seemed that the people had trouble developing the adequate agriculture necessary to support a large scale civilization. This is confounding, especially since much of North America is now very accessible as farmland. Then I had an idea. What if the introduction of earthworms in the 17th and 18th centuries led to the ability of the region to support agriculture.

Reports from early European colonies state that New England in particular had very poor soil for growing, and this seemed to be the case farther west into the Ohio country. In inland forests, there was a thick layer of decomposing plant matter upon the forest floor that allowed for the growth of many small ferns, but prevented suitable crops from growing. The introduction of earthworms changed that. Worms sped up the decomposition of dead plant matter and mixed the nutrient content of the soil throughout several layers of soil. Small plants such as ferns could not grow. The worms had effectively tilled the soil, and had eliminated the competition that may have been had between crops and other small plants. Was this a contributor to the increase in the agricultural capacity of these areas?

I would appreciate some help in researching this. It seems to make sense to me, but I want the opinions of some more informed than I. Also, if there are any articles concerning this, it would be great if you posted links to them. Thank you.

I'm very interested in this subject and would love some reading on the topic if you have any. Thanks!

Edit: Thanks for the answers guys. They're all helpful!