Long-time lurker here; to clarify my question, I'm really interested in the following:

Given that at that time there would have been a large Breton-speaking community in Britanny, how far were cultural freedoms, language and traditions suppressed under Nazi military occupation? How did that suppression compare to suppression under the French Republic? Did the Nazi's ever create Breton-speaking units in their army, or encourage use of the Breton language? What was the Nazi racial view of the Bretons in relation to the French?

Sure we had the Servile Wars, but I'm more so wondering if there was any sort of abolitionist movement where citizens fought for the rights of people being killed for sport (perhaps Roman slaves as a whole).

I'd like to think that not everyone was just okay with humans dying for the sake of entertainment (even if some were criminals). Am I wrong for assuming this?

I'm a huge history geek but one thing I feel like my schooling has really deprived me of while growing up is that empires were around and flourishing well into the early 20th century. From everything I've read and seen, World War 1 seems to be where they start to really dissipate and die out. What happened to the worlds empires that really put an end to them has seemingly caused borders to remain the same globally for so long, and for conquests to rarely take place?

edit: i'm from the US and empires are new found interest (especially the British Empire) so I apologize if I am way off with my line of questioning!

I have heard that Martin Luther was a sexist (by our standards at least) but was he any more sexist than your every day priest in his time or is it only but our standards that he was sexist? And did he add anything that we would consider sexist to Christianity?

It may seem like a minor issue, but things like chapped lips and chafed skin can become a major problem for outdoor winter sports like mountaineering or skiing. It got me thinking - did people who lived in harsh snowy climates do anything to protect their skin historically?

From what I've read, Muhammad's first wife was a very independent and empowered woman. Did caliphs and imams who codified sharia laws play down these traits?

First lecture of the new term, and half way through "Wide bandgap materials", we get a brief history of SiC (sillicon carbide).

• 1827 SiC first observed
• Found use as a hard abrasive (think sandpaper)
• 1907 first SiC LED
• 1955 high quality crystal growth
• 1978 seeded sublimation
• 1981 SiC growth on Si wafers

WTF? I though semiconductor devices didn't exist until the 40s/50s, when new understanding of these semiconducting materials like galium eventually lead to the first transistor. 1907 for LEDs seems way too early.

What became of this LED? Why wasn't it explored?

While Semitic these days is colloquially used to mean "Jewish" (mostly with the term "anti-Semitic), the Semites are actually people from a particular region of the Middle East. So both Middle Eastern Jews and Arabs are Semites. The Nazis must have known this, so how did they come to allow Arabs in the Waffen-SS? And subsequently, why would Hitler hold positive views of the prophet Muhammad?

Obviously cognitive bias can be very strong in some people (after all, why would you want to kill millions of people as they did), but this seems to be a large inconsistency in the Nazi ideology. Or is there an aspect of their beliefs of which I am unaware?

The North African campaign of the Second World War is sometimes known as the "War Without Hate" owing to how chivalrously the British and Germans supposedly treated each other. Is this borne out by documentary evidence, for example, statistics of how often MPs had to intervene to prevent war crimes or PTSD rates among veterans?

Many stereotypes of Islam are rooted in prescriptions not in the Quran but in the Hadiths. Many observant Jews see the Talmud as integral to their religion.

Why did it come to be that most Christian sects ignored apocryphal writings like the Gospel of Thomas or the Gospel of Marcion?

I know a few people today who lost a child at a young age. Most of them took years to recover and they were never really the same. As I understand it, back then it was expected that you would lose at least one child if not several. Did people then avoid getting attached to babies?

I mean besides the fact he wasn't Mexican and he was imposed by the French and the Austrians (via the French).

I guess what I am asking is what policies and what was it like living under his regime that made Mexicans shoot him in the face?

Did the German and Italian speaking cantons express any interest in joining the new nation? Did German and Italian nationalists expect them to join?

I have begun collecting Roman coins and I've noticed something rather strange. A huge portion of the coins I come across in shops/the internet are of Eastern Empire/Byzantine origin. Also, it seems that most, if not all of these coins were minted during the reign of the Constantines. Is there a reason why "Constantinian" coins are so common compared to other non-Eastern coins?

Does Russia have a particular history of honoring animals? Did the Soviets see some kind of connection between working animals and the proletariat?

Hi guys, title says it all;

What exactly was a man-at-arms and how would he have fought?

Apologies for the amateur-level question of something that's probably a really easy thing, Internet sources are proving tricky to disseminate.

This is obviously based on personal preferences and opinions, but many people nowadays seem to think of dramas as more high-class, more respectable, whereas comedy is, for lack of a better word, lower class. I've also read about similar feelings with regards to "low" comedy in other eras (Vaudeville and Venetian street comedies come to mind). Did the ancient Greeks feel the same about their tragedies and comedies?