Obviously this could be attributed to the 'civilization' itself dying out, but was it possibly in favour of the larger religions we know today?

Regular google searches only give scarce and outdated web results. Is there any specific resources anyone can point me to?

I was thinking on this today, and I realized that at their core, wheelchairs are decidedly low-tech. Literally a chair with wheels stuck on them. So, when are the records of the first wheelchair?

I guess my question is two part:

How early was oil first discovered? And how long did it take for people to realize its practicality? Did they find the oil and use it in several methods before finding its utility, or did they immediately realize its possible use?

Poland was a major world power and helped the Hapsburgs of Austria drive back the Ottomans. Yet almost a hundrend years later, the polish kingdom was split between Austria, Russia and Prussia. Whatever could happen to lead Poland to such a decline?

Please excuse the poorly phrased question, I have a vague memory of reading about this topic quite a long time ago, during the last years of the cold-war, and I was hoping to get a little more up-to-date.

What I recall reading somewhere was that, at the time of the early CNTB negotiations... the US had secretly developed extremely powerful super-computers that could simulate nuclear tests without the need for actual real-life detonations, and that the CNTB treaty was an effort to make that advantage permanent and to keep the Soviets and others from advancing further.

I'm feeling like my source of information must have had a bit of bias, and was painting the US as acting in bad faith. Is there any truth to that allegation? More generally.... what role did super-computer simulations of nuclear detonations play, if any, in non-proliferation treaty negotiations?

Were there any events like D-Day during World War 1? I would imagine it would be very useful to circumvent the trench warfare stalemate. If there wasn't any, why did it not occur?

Coins seem so ubiquitous and global.

Peaky Blinders is a Netflix drama about the events concerning the "Peaky Blinders" gang in 1919 Birmingham. Chief Inspector Chester Campbell is an Irish policeman from Belfast called to Birmingham at the bequest of Winston Churchill to recover a large amount of stolen guns.

However one of the main themes of the show is the attitude of his police force towards him as it is revealed that he didn't go to fight in WWI. As far as I know, conscription was never introduced to Ireland so why did this English attitude exist towards Irishmen? Is the depiction of attitudes in the show correct?

Edited: Forgot the 1920 Government of Ireland Act hadn't come into effect, Ireland was not yet partitioned.

Lately I've been thinking about how brutal the romans are depicted, were they really that cruel? I don't just mean slavery and the other things they did im talking about mass infanticide, genocide, war rape, Massacres and other horrible things. Were they really THAT barbaric? if so why? What caused them to become so brutal?

Btw thanks for all the answers guys I really appreciate it.

I heard it from my favourite teacher in high school, but I recently wondered if there are any sources to support it. It would explain how the word gothic came to describe an architecture, a litterary genre and a modern subculture.

I'm imagining a scenario where I'm in a small town in Yorkshire with my father, whose failing health is probably going to cause him to die in the next few weeks or months, but before that he desperately wants to speak to my brother - who lives in London.

Imagine we're not poor, but not really wealthy either. Would that be enough to hire our own messenger? Or ask a travelling merchant to pass a note? Who would I tell him to give it to, do I have an address, streetname and number? What options would I have to send him a message asking him to come as quickly as possible?

I've been reading through Richard Evans's trilogy, and am currently on the last book ('the Third Reich at War'). I've been reading about the atrocities they committed in the name of the 'Aryan race'. But how did it come about that the antisemitism of the Weimar era led to the attempt to kill all the Jews in the Reich?

Was it 'just following orders'? Was it due to the antisemitic propaganda?

I appreciate that the Soviets etc were also barbaric in their treatment of civilians - so what makes an entire army and regime participate in the slaughter of civilians? (As far as I know, it wasn't just the SS, the Wehrmacht was also involved)

I read an article earlier today which referenced mayday and pan pan. It described which term was used in different scenarios. I've never heard of pan pan and got to thinking about the origins of these terms. Where did mayday and pan pan originate?

I was wondering if anyone could tell me if indentured servants in America, during the pre-civil era, and african salves worked/lived together. Was indentured servitude (particularly of English heritage) over by then, or was it still going on?

I am living in the woods for a year after I graduate and one of the things I have to do is build myself a shelter. I would love to emulate Native American styles and so avoid having to construct a large, time consuming, and nigh unheatable log cabin, but I am confused about some of the details. How did Native Americans in the area I will be living in (upstate New York, near the national border) insulate against the brutal cold? It does not seem like bark alone would provide enough insulation.

I really want to know. So far, only Greece has a well enough recorded history to document events; however, Rome is an open slate. Rome seems more intriguing because their government seemed to overlap over Greece's Republic, yet with little documentation leading up to it's creation.