Its my understanding that Tornadoes are much more rare in Europe than in the US. Was there a point early in US history when most people would not no what a tornado was? Or were they understood to be very infrequent events.

I want to know if there ever was a definite policy of genocide by the United States government and military towards Native Americans from the late 1700s onwards, or was it more of an overlap of many discriminatory policies, diseases and wars creating the situation where a destruction of native cultures and people happened but wasn't an explicit intentional act of genocide?

I've encountered some debate on whether this is an accurate portrayal of the era. To me it seems more of an exaggerated image of the socio-economic change at the time and more of a result of post-Tudor literature. However, I could easily be wrong, since massive social change of that sort in a short amount of time isn't totally out of the question.

So basically, would it be proper to characterize the Tudor period as embodying those societal changes?

I've seen this quoteseveral times on Facebook. I did a little Googling but was unable to find any proof or citations regarding its credibility. From what I know about Washington, it doesn't sound like something he would say.

What caused this difference since pieces from Mozart and other composers still exist and are played today, while over half of movies pre-1950 have been lost?

So we know the Proto-Indo-Iranians migrated down from Russia into Iran and India, and then migrated into Europe.

What I'd like to know is what made their language so special as to overtake the indigenous linguistic forms of the populations of Europe and Asia (if there were any to begin with!)?

Do we know anything about the pre-"Aryan" world and the languages people spoke?

This has been a question long in my mind, and this is probably the only place I can think of that offers a sliver of a chance in answering this.

To the best of my knowledge, "Khan" is not a surname in modern Turkey, Ukraine, Russia, China, Iran, or Iraq.

Turko-Mongol people have ruled huge swaths of the world at various times. Why did "Khan" only take hold as a name in India?

I am specifically inquiring about his personal combat skills, not his command ability. Is their any indication he was a skilled warrior?

My girlfriend (from New York) and I (from Florida) were recently discussing where this term comes from. Is there any historical significance to the term?

i'm pretty curious as to some of the reasons for this. For china i know that the concept of the mandate of heaven played a major part, but i'm a bit lost on the other two. I'm only interested really in up to the 16th century so no sengoku

Relevant text (KJV Deuteronomy 15:1-2)

At the end of every seven years thou shalt make a release. And this is the manner of the release: Every creditor that lendeth ought unto his neighbour shall release it; he shall not exact it of his neighbour, or of his brother; because it is called the Lord's release.

My understanding of French colonial history is basically nonexistent, so I was surprised to read that the 90 million franc sum demanded by France as reparations to slave holders was actually finally repaid in the 40s.

I would be interested in knowing a little more about the reparation process, especially the reasons for maintaining the debt after the abolition of slavery, as well as international opinion of the debt. How is modern day Haiti effected by the legacy of this enormous debt?