I've read that the Black Death acted as a trigger for widespread change in England, due to the drastic drop in population which led to cheaper grain and a drastic increase in wages for workers. I believe the "Statute of Labourers" from 1351 was also partly brought about by the plague's aftermath.

I was wondering if the Black Death acted as an impetus for similar changes elsewhere in Europe?

Were the Ottomans particularly violent in suppressing rebellion? Was there even much rebellion by the populace?

He served in the German Wehrmacht (not the SS, SA etc.) during WW2 and was a POW until 1949 (or 1948, something like that) in Siberia, having been captured after Stalingrad was taken back by the Russians.

We never talked much about it, mostly about how the Russians treated him fairly well due to him and his men not complying with their orders a lot (i.e. not fighting back since they knew it doesn't change anything in the end). He died back in 2006 and my grandma doesn't have lots of photos, none that were taken during his tour anyway.

I grew up hearing about the terrible bombing of Dresden. I've read all of Vonnegut's books, and it was mentioned in many history books, so I always took it as a given that this was historical fact. But I recently heard that some say the horrors of the bombing of Dresden were exaggerated by Nazi propagandists--it wasn't as destructive or as deadly as we think. So what I'm asking here is: which version is correct? Was it exaggerated, or is it pretty much as it is usually described? Are the disagreements minor or major?

Is it something related to the Japanese version of Feng-Shui?

The well known Japanese infantry weapons which was the type 38 arisaka rifle and the type 3 heavy machine gun seemed to be better suited for Ww1 or interwar years combat when compared to the Semi automatic rifles and ubiquitous american weaponry.

I had also heard that the regular japanese infantry man did not have a submachine gun as part of his primary weaponry, The most common japanese submachine gun, the type 100, only had 27k units made and was regulated to special units.

So my question is why were japanese infantry weapons in Ww2 seemingly inferior to their allied counterparts considering that japan had an emphasis on their army?

Was it for example due to their military doctrine and how they conduct warfare or lack of production capabilities?

On a side note Japan seemed to also lack adequate Armored vehicles when compared to American Shermans and stuarts, although Japanese tanks proved useful in china.

Who had the first home internet connection?

If i understand correctly, the only significant aspect of the leaning tower of Pisa is that it leans. I was curious to know when it became popular, because it was likely not always leaning. What were the circumstances that lead to its fame?

I am thinking about reading the book Jefferson vs. Hamilton: Confrontations that Shaped a Nation, and would like to know how historically accurate this book is from someone who has read it. Thanks in advance to anyone able to answer my question.

Would I be well equipped? What was training like? What's regimental life like? How much do I know about what's going on, do I know how badly we're losing? What might my battle experience like be? And if I'm one of those who survives the campaign and is part of the triumphant march through Paris and eventually return home, what will my experience be as a battle-hardened veteran of one of Russia's grandest victories?

In the 18th century tea wasn't really a thing in Italy, only coffee, so much so that a Frenchwoman visiting an Italian castrato in the 1700s took the time to note in the letter that his was the first house where she'd not only been offered tea, but had a right decent cuppa. (This was a guy called Senesino, who was a real Anglophile and had a whole house in Italy full of English stuff, so he was special.) I'm given to understand tea still isn't a big part of the Italian culinary scene.

So why didn't the Italians, compared to neighboring European nations who love the stuff, take a liking to tea? Did they simply not have cheap or easy enough access to it?

edit: if I'm wrong and the Italians are not unique for not drinking tea please explain it in full. Why did some European nations take to tea while others did not?

I've always been curious, because it seems like the war was little more than a "mopping up" of the 2nd Punic war,with only 50 years between the sue for peace after the defeat at Zama and the siege of Carthage? Is time the only thing that separates the wars? Is there more than went on?

I understand that the methods works as so

2 BC, 1 BC, 0, 1 AD, 2 AD.

the only thing I don't get is what event was so imporant that someone or some group of people decided to start counting years differently.

I'm aware that the birth of christ is a possibility but i'm looking for possible other answers because Jesus is believed to be born from about 7-4 BC due to the alignment of the Reign of King Herod.

EDIT Question was not worded very well; seemed like a troll. but i'm actually looking for answers.