My husband and I are wondering about this, especially since we have a baby that doesn't sleep well and we have decided to not to sleep train her via cry it out (letting her cry herself to sleep).

With this question, we are thinking of working class/poor families, and thought they might rely on older siblings to soothe the babies at night (given they seemed to have larger families), or might have used alcohol or another folk remedy. We figured they didn't let them cry to sleep since they lived in smaller quarters? Chose the 1700s/1800s for this question because we are Jane Austen fans and that era comes to mind when I think of "olden times" :) Curious about other eras too but wanted to be specific in the question! Thank you!

I know the US has a long tradition of limiting immigration of non-whites with laws like the Chinese Exclusion Act and various quotas (and to a possibly lesser extent, the Alien and Sedition Acts), but when and how have such laws applied to Europeans or targeted Europeans? Would people like my ancestors (Germans who came over in the 1800s) have had full citizenship after passing through Ellis Island or was there more they needed to do in subsequent years? When did the immigration process start become the complicated mess it is today?

Also, did Japan, Italy, and Germany refer to themselves as the Axis Powers in their own respective languages?

Was it humanitarian reasons, economic reasons, or simply because the Americas had enough slaves?

So my basic understanding of this is that the revolution overthrew the monarchy under the house of Valois-Bourbon, then something to do with the directory and Maximilian Robespierre happened. Some time after that napoleon happened and then a blur for the rest of the century. Just asking for a quick rundown of the subject.

Of course everyone is a military genius in hindsight, but it just seems like Napoleon was a master at getting his opponents to fight. Bringing the Grande Armée seems like bringing a gun to a knife fight. Of course your enemy would run away.

I once was told that the Haida practiced a form of slavery in which men captured in battle would be enslaved for a period of 7-10 years, at the end of which, they would be set free with a celebration. However, this sounds suspiciously close to the practice of the year of Jubilee in the Old Testament, so I was wondering where the truth lay.

Whenever I see anything on the Thirty Years war, it is always mentioned that the soldiers fighting the war were mercenaries who were hired by the nobility to fight for them. They got paid by being allowed to loot as much of the countryside as they wish, resulting in endless horror stories about the devastation these armies brought to the people of the Holy Roman Empire. My question is, basically, what were these mercenary armies? Where did these armies come from? Did these armies just wait around for a war to break out so they can fight people? Were they commonly used during wars at the time? Was it a major profession for people to join these mercenary armies?

I'm a pretty serious runner, and just came back from a stress fracture after four months out. I didn't recognize it as a fracture at first, I thought it was just a sore spot, and nobody was certain till I had an MRI.

I know, though, that ignoring a stress fracture can easily lead to a very real and serious fracture, so were people able to catch one at the beginning, and prevent serious injury? And if so, would that cost the victim four months away from running/excessive walking/weightbearing exercises?

I have this debate in which I have to support the idea that military history is antiquated and that we should not learn it in school. Any help would be great.

Edit: I'm just letting you all know that I actually support learning military history. I just have to learn how to take a side even if I don't agree with it.

I ask because many documents from historical Christians, especially the Catholic Church, explicitly condemn the practice.

Now, you'll see Americans quoting genesis to justify circumcision as a Christian religious practice.

Did this switch happen immediately after circumcision was introduced as a medical procedure in the late 1800's, or was it more subtle? Are there any particular people associated with the idea?

I read Amin Maalouf's The Crusades through Arab Eyes, and I understand that Egypt went through great turmoil with invasions by the Catholic crusaders and Turkish, Kurdish, and Arab Sunni Muslims, until it was eventually conquered by Shirkuh and his nephew, Saladin, ushering in the Ayubbid rule in Egypt. Eventually, after further Crusader invasions and Mongol invasions, the Mamluk Sultanate came to rule Egypt.

I'm just rushing through the details, but my question is, how did this Shia area transition to the Sunni branch of the religion? Was there an effort by Saladin and his successors to convert the populace? What was the process for the change?

Because of a little discussion in /r/civ I'd like to hear a professional opinion on this:

Have the cataphract been a typical military unit in Byzantium? If yes, in which time and number? Or were they rather typical for the Parthians and Sarmatians?

Thank you very much, Raykyn